KellyM,
>Nothing in the Bill of Rights (or, in fact, the entire Constitution) creates positive law constraining individual citizens. The Constitution delineates the relationship between the federal government and the states, and binds only them. The people are beneficiaries of the Constitution but are not bound in any way by it. <
I don't really feel that it is appropriate for me to be getting into legal theory, but, oh well. The US Constitution does protect individuals from individuals. It is convoluted how this works, though. The US Constitution as it is enforced can protect one civilly or criminally. For example, if the Ku Klux Klan decides to hold a rally and informs the government agency that has jurisdiction over the area where the KKK wants to hold the rally, the government agency must protect the KKK against the hoards of people that are going to show up and threaten the KKK. This government agency must do this or the KKK will sue the government agency for violations of their rights under the First Amendment.
Another example is were the police officers who were criminally charged in the Rodney King case. They were charged under some federal statute that perhaps came from the Fifth Amendment (they were not charged with a "hate" crime so I don't believe that the 14th Amendment applied in any way). In any event, my understanding is that the officers were charged under the US Constitution in some way.
In both of these examples, individuals were protected from other individuals by the Federal government because the other government agencies didn't do their jobs.
> If a state were to, for some reason, repeal the relevant criminal law and abrogate the common law offense, there would be no recourse under federal law unless you could characterize the act as a civil rights offense under the appropriate federal statute (which is questionable). <
It's only questionable because one never knows how the political winds are blowing in Washington. One could almost certainly find a statute to file federal criminal charges under. The defendant might be the state, though.
>The fact that we have had to adopt specific laws forbidding female genital mutilation (even with the substituted consent of the parents) indicates that such an act is not illegal without such statutes. If consensual female genital mutilation is not prohibited by the constitution, neither is consensual male genital mutilation.<
It may indicate that such "an act is not illegal." Or, it might indicate that the existing law was not being enforced to protect these children. In any event, this law protecting only girls is so brazenly unconstitutional under the 14th Amendment that any ethical attorney's head should be spinning. Right there is a civil rights violation for a baby boy who gets circumcised. Won't be enforced though. Circumcision is a phenomenon that reaches out to all facets of America. What has gone wrong here?