Please Factually Evaluate These Comments

I know this could be thought to teeter on the brink of being an “IMHO” post, but I really just want to know the facts here.

Please evaluate the following comments:

"I have heard in the past that the Americans supported Osama Bin Laden and his fundamentalist extremists during the Soviet invasion in Afghanistan in 1979 (the irony being that now somebody we gave money to is attacking us). This is incorrect; there were two groups of opposition to the Soviet invasion, native Afghanis and transplanted fundamentalists like Bin Laden who went in and waged their own war against the Soviets. The Americans supported the native Afghanis only. Bin Laden et al never got any support.

Similarly, during Iran-Contra, we hear how Reagan’s administration sold arms to the Iranians and used the money to fund the Contras in Central America. Again, this is incorrect. The Reagan administration supported an Israeli group that was supporting another group that was planning on taking power in Iran after the current Iranian government fell (or something like that – the point is that it didn’t happen the way that Reagan’s critics say it did).

So, when I hear that America supported Saddam before 1991, my suspicion-detector starts going off."

-FrL-

Would this suffice?

Shaking Hands with Saddam Hussein

Actually Iran/Contra happened exactly the way “reagan’s critics” say it did.

http://www.fas.org/irp/offdocs/walsh/

http://www.webcom.com/pinknoiz/covert/stip.html

That has already been refuted, but I just want to add that this is an example of antisemitic propaganda promulgated in many circles. Blame Israel for everything that’s wrong with the world. It is that philosopy that led to the Holocaust.

The Bin Laden comments are not as easily debunked, however, it’s reasonable to believe that the anti-Soviet organization he helped found, did receive American funds indirectly through Pakistan’s ISI agency.

I don’t think it’s anti-semetic propaganda to say that there was an Israeli role in Iran-Contra, because, as the independant counsel report said, there was an Israeli role in Iran-Contra. As the independant counsel report said:

And the Israelis were active as middlemen for the missile sales to Iran.

Wrong.

I suspect whoever gave you the original “The US never sponsored Bin Laden” quote will try to split hairs by saying the US never supported him firsthand, but it seems very clear-cut to me – the CIA supported the ISI’s recruit-radical-Muslems initiative, and Osama was a prize catch of said initiative.

There’s a world of difference between “Israeli role” and “an Israeli group that was supporting another group that was planning on taking power in Iran after the current Iranian government fell…”

I don’t see any difference between the two that would make think that one could be an anti-semitic comment while the other is not.

And I don’t see how it is anti-semitic to say anything fairly paraphrased as “some people who are citizens of the nation of Israel did something I disapprove of.”

I disapprove of what some people who are citizens of the nation of America are doing as well–namely, I disapprove of many of the administration’s actions–but does this make me “anti-american?” Especially, does this make me “anti-american” in a sense which justifies grouping me w/ people who think American nationals are a bad sort of person just because they are American nationals?

Of course not.

-FrL-