Political Spending Questions (Soros inspired)

I am, along with alot of people I’m guessing, a bit hazy on how the restrictions on political money work.

I call it “political money” because I don’t strictly mean “campaign finance”. I know that individuals can only contribute what, $2k to any one candidate’s campaign? But beyond that, how does it work?

I am prompted to wonder these things because of George Soros (god bless him!) and his millions to defeat Bush. Could he, legally, produce ads and buy ad time on TV as a private individual and say any or all of the following things:

“My name is George Soros, here’s what I personally think of GWB and why I think you should vote for anyone but him. This ad paid for entirely by me.”

“Here’s why I personally believe you should vote for Dean/Clark/Kerry whoever. This ad paid for entirely by me.”

Anyone know the answer to this? Seems to me that the First Amendment would protect Mr. Soros’ right to say whatever he damn well pleases about anything, if he can pay for airtime to say it, wouldn’t it? (And anyone else, obviously)

(yes, political, no, not Great Debate. Just asking a question which has a factual answer.)

Somebody’s gotta know!

Pweeeese?

Yes, he could say:

“I’m a billionaire and I advise you to vote for someone besides W, such as xyz.”

But, he cannot coordinate his activites with a candidate or party or then it does not qualify as an independent expenditure as you are hoping.

That’s interesting. I wasn’t trying to be clever with the “besides W, such as xyz.” What a coincidence! I just meant xyz as a generic variable.

But how does one define “coordinate” one’s activities, according to the law?

Just what you would expect it means; truly independent.

Here’s more info:

http://www.access.gpo.gov/nara/cfr/waisidx_03/11cfr109_03.html