Another odd question that comes up in the practice of law.
Suppose me and another fellow Doper decide that living the straight and narrow isn’t working out, so we turn to a life of crime.
We decide that in order to make money, we will distribute heroin and cocaine. Unfortunately our enterprise is short-lived as the police (legally) search our homes and find that we have these drugs in our possession. We are charged with possession with intent to deliver heroin, possession with intent to deliver cocaine, conspiracy to deliver heroin, and conspiracy to deliver cocaine. Four different charges.
That got me wondering. Is is proper to charge separate violations for the heroin and the cocaine? On one hand it makes sense because there are two distinct drugs at play, but on the other hand it doesn’t make sense because we could have specialized and say, sold, 10 times the amount of cocaine, refrained from heroin, and only faced half of the possible prison time. That doesn’t seem right.
**Assume for the purposes of these hypos that each drug is possessed in the amount and under circumstances that would support a charge of possession with intent, but not in such an amount that would raise the bar to a higher charge:
What counts as one discrete act of possession? If we had cocaine bagged in individual units, would each bag count as a distinct act of possession? What if they are individually bagged, but all of the small bags are contained in one larger bag? If I had some cocaine in the car and some in the house, is that two counts? Would it be different if I had heroin in the car and cocaine in the house?
To be even more absurd, what is to stop the police from charging a person with a separate count for each molecule of a banned substance?
Any clear answer to this or does it vary by jurisdiction/circuit split?
ETA: Same question for conspiracy: Did we have one agreement to sell cocaine/heroin or two distinct agreements: one to sell cocaine, yet a separate to sell heroin?