I found this about the powerball: ‘In each drawing, five balls are drawn from a drum with 69 white balls (labeled 1 through 69) and one ball is drawn from a drum with 26 red balls (labeled 1 through 26).’ leading to a jackpot odds being 1 in 292+million.
I didn’t see anything about having to choose numbers from low to high or if you can choose the same number twice. These would be my first 2 questions.
So getting a 1, the first number, is a 1 in 69 chance. If you can’t play the same number twice then the second number chosen has a 1 in 68 chance of being drawn and so on. Then the powerball number itself would be a 1 in 26 chance. That all makes sense.
I don’t play but a relative said you’ve got the same odds of winning the jackpot if you chose: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and a powerball number 6 as you do any other combination of numbers.
Something about this didn’t sit well with me and I disputed it based on a hunch I guess. I can’t prove it.
I immediately imagined choosing any linear sequence of numbers would lessen the odds of winning considerably. I mean the chances of any one number being drawn is one thing, but the chances of getting a continually linear sequence of numbers drawn has to diminish with each sequential number. Right? And then there’s the additional sequential powerball number 6.
If you agree, great! I ask that if you can show me the mathematical proof and it can be confirmed, I will throw back into the relatives face. That would be fun. Don’t you think?