Over the past five months, I have been on three different prescription drug policies - one private, paid by myself via COBRA, one state administered Medicaid, and the last Medicare with a “Medigap” policy that costs me nothing but allows me a co-payment of $5 for a prescription of generic drugs. There was also a period where my COBRA insurance ‘overlapped’ with Medicaid, and a period where I had Medicaid but the amount of a prescribed drug was determined by Medicaid and not my doctor.
There is a narcotic opioid - a generic drug - that I am prescribed for severe pain. It comes in the form of a nasal spray. The generic name of the drug is “Butorphanol Tartrate Nasal Spray” (found in the PDR as “Stadol Nasal Spray”). After going through numerous other painkillers, this one worked, so I have a standing Rx for it and get it and use it as needed - maybe 6 days in a months time. (And unlike God - I mean Rush Limbaugh, of course - I’ve not become addicted to the drug and have never abused it: I use it when I need it - an odd practice, I know, but I suppose that I was afraid that Rush would find out and have me ‘sent up the river’ if he found that I was doctor shopping or making illegal purchases of a controlled substance. I live in fear of the man, you see).
When I was on my COBRA plan, the receipt from the pharmacy indicated that the insurance company had paid $54.53 and I paid $10.00 as a co-payment.
When I had ‘overlapping’ coverage from both the COBRA insurance company as well as Medicaid, the receipt indicated that the ‘insurers’ had paid $185.99 for the medication and I paid $1 as a co-payment.
When I was on Medicaid, the receipt indicated that Medicaid had paid $125.57 for the medication and I paid $3 as a co-payment.
Because Medicaid had a monthly ‘cap’ on the number of times this Rx could be filled in a one month time period, I paid for it once out of my own pocket and I was charged $82.59 for the medication.
Now that I am on Medicare, part A and B, and have the ‘free’ Medigap policy through a well know insurer, the insurer is pays $62.22 and I make a co-payment of $5 per Rx. (BTW - I asked the Medigap insurer that signed me up how in the world they could make money by offering a pretty decent plan and charge not one penny for it and was told that they were reimbursed through ‘the government - from what you pay for Medicare Part B’)
Because of the brilliant Bush Administration prescription aid card that will be issued beginning in March of 2004, I believe, I am informed that I am eligible to receive the card and obtain “10 - 25% off the price of the retail cost of prescriptions.”
So I began a 2 week search to find where I could actually find the ‘retail price’ of this drug - the majority of my Google searches ended in links to Canadian mail-order pharmacies but, as this drug is a controlled substance, it can’t be ordered from Canada.
I’m quite happy to live the remainder of my days paying $5 for this drug but I am utterly confused about the discrepancy in the pricing - is the drug company or the pharmacy making the obscene profit? The price of the drug, I assume, isn’t dependent on the roller coaster of the Dow Index, so why did the price vary from $186.99 for a high and $64.53 for a low? An $122.46 price difference? Is the $82.59 that I paid - independently - the “full retail price of the prescription?”
This leads up to several questions: why, and how, are pharmaceutical manufacturers and/or pharmacies able to charge such differing prices for the same medication? It’s obviously a rigged game, but who makes the profit?
The second question is related to the newly issued Congressional Budget Reports gloomy outlook for the economy, and Medicare specifically, which states that “prescription drugs have been a major factor driving up costs, particularly in recent years.” Well - yeah! Why are drug companies (of which the government is supposedly one of the best customers) and/or pharmacies, screwed by paying - at a minimum - $125.57 for drug that an insurer can pay as little as $54.53?
Since this message board has some pretty bright people hanging about, I’m hoping that someone in the pharmaceutical industry (be it manufacturer or pharmacy) or anyone else that has knowledge of why these discrepancies are allowed (government employee, maybe? - Someone behind the Alien Autopsy conspiracy?) and help me understand what’s going on, exactly?
I just don’t get it.
I made a lot of money when I worked and paid far more in SS ‘taxes’ than I will ever be able to regain - I’m OK with that because I know that the money I put in will go to others. Because I was unable to work, my life savings were drained by medical bills and my only income now is from the SSA.
The fact is that the “retail price” prescription card would probably allow those pharmaceutical manufacturers who have a modicum of goodwill to do away with plans that aid low income patients dependent FOR OUR LIVES on non-generic drugs. If that happens, I’m screwed, because some drugs that I now receive that cost me $12 a month and are not covered under my Medigap policy would cost me - at the 25% discount rate - over $600 per month.
And I guess one thing that really peeves me - no, pisses me off - is that in whatever manner the ‘legal’ drug deals are contracted, someone involved is screwing you - the people that are working and paying taxes - by charging YOUR GOVERNMENT for nearly three times the amount of money charged to private insurers.
Why? How?
Any insight would be appreciated.