Tell me where I’m going wrong, please.
If I recall correctly, given two events A and B whose probailities are independent, the probability of “A and B” is P(A) * P(B) and the probability of “A or B or both” is P(A) + P(B) - P(A and B)
Now, take the following two statements:
P: A occurs, and (either B occurs, or C occurs, or both occur.)
Q: Either (A and B both occur,) or (A and C both occur,) or both of these situations occur.
Now, for at least some probability assignments to A, B, and C, the probabilities of these two events (meaning events P and Q) differ. For example, if P(A) = 2/3, P(B) = 1/3, and P© = 1/3, then P§ is 10/27, while P(Q) is 32/81.
Yet, I can’t think of a way to picture either of these occuring without the other also occuring. In fact, A^(BvC) is logically equivalent to (A^B)v(A^C) if I remember correctly.
If, for some R and S, there is no way for R to occur without S also occuring, and there is no way for S to occur without R also occuring, then as far as I can tell, R and S must have the same probability.
But P and Q are such a pair, and yet do not have the same probability.
Where’s my error?
Thanks!
-FrL-