I’m obviously not making my point clear.
We change civil laws usually due to pressures arising from a moral need. Granting full civil rights to those previously denied such rights, through law for example. We usually don’t change laws unless there’s a compelling need. We don’t change laws for the hell of it, or because we’re lazy about following existing ones. We may bend the law, but the law remains. (Think traffic speeders)
Now, I was comparing this to the need for languages to evolve. Certainly as new concepts arise new words are needed to express them. I would consider this a compelling need to change language. Or maybe a clearer way of expressing a concept drives a new “slang” word into common usage. Again I would say that’s a compelling force for change.
I have difficulty accepting the concept of changing pronunciations because of (IMO) flippant reasons (like it’s harder to say ask than aks). If that’s "compelling: then we might as well shorten every multi-syllable word since that’s easier too.
Where is the line drawn? Do we have a language run by “mob rules”? I’d prefer that not be so.
Language is not analogous to civil law. Language is a tool whose use is entirely in the hands of those who are using it. What is “correct” and what changes are accepted are based on the cumulative individual decisions of the people who use language. Period.
The line is drawn where each individual chooses to draw it within the context of his or her own attempts to communicate with the people he or she needs to communicate. That’s how language works.
There is no moral need of any kind implicated. There is nothing comparable to law or a legal structure at stake.
Oh God, are we resurrecting that “one space or two after a period” topic now? There have been whole threads on that. (One space is correct, BTW.)
I was just using it as an analogue for his train of logic.
Okay, then why you can say it’s “correct” to have one space and “incorrect” to have more, but I can’t say it’s “correct” to say ask and “incorrect” to say aks.
Surely there are tens of thousands of people who continue to use 2 (or more) spaces. Why does spoken word get the benefit of the term dialect, but written word/syntax doesn’t? This seems rather inconsistent, considering acsenray’s statement that these are both facets of language.
If Boeing Airlines is pronounced boe-ing, than the proper German pronunciation of John Boehner’s last name would be boe-ner. NOT bay-ner. He also lives up to his name!
Why would the American pronunciation of Boeing indicate the German pronunciation of Boehner?
Not the oldest thread I’ve seen on this board, but the oldest today. 
Think of the governator saying “Bane,uh”. That’s close to how it should sound.
Moderator Note
BOOMERS, political jabs are not permitted in General Questions, and are an especially poor reason to resurrect an old thread. No warning issued, but don’t do this again.
Since this is old and has been raised pointlessly, I’m closing it.
Colibri
General Questions Moderator