OK, I’m having a bit of a row with Danielinthewolvesden about the proper meaning of some OT verses. I am particlarly interested in the input of those who have read the OT in the original language, since the two of us are kind of stalling out with the various translations, and I, at least, make no claim to be a Bible scholar. I am not intending to get into a debate of the morality of OT slavery, nor am I intending to cast aspersions on the treatment of slaves by the ancient Jews; I just want to know for sure what the verses are saying! Here’s the ones in question:
[Lev 25:39] "And if your brother becomes poor beside you, and sells himself to you, you shall not make him serve as a slave:
[Lev 25:40] he shall be with you as a hired servant and as a sojourner. He shall serve with you until the year of the jubilee;
[Lev 25:41] then he shall go out from you, he and his children with him, and go back to his own family, and return to the possession of his fathers.
[Lev 25:42] For they are my servants, whom I brought forth out of the land of Egypt; they shall not be sold as slaves.
[Lev 25:43] You shall not rule over him with harshness, but shall fear your God.
[Lev 25:44] As for your male and female slaves whom you may have: you may buy male and female slaves from among the nations that are round about you.
[Lev 25:45] You may also buy from among the strangers who sojourn with you and their families that are with you, who have been born in your land; and they may be your property.
[Lev 25:46] You may bequeath them to your sons after you, to inherit as a possession for ever; you may make slaves of them, but over your brethren the people of Israel you shall not rule, one over another, with harshness.
[Exodus 21:7] If a man sells his daughter as a servant, she is not to go free as menservants do.
[Exodus 21:8] If she does not please the master who has selected her for himself, he must let her be redeemed. He has no right to sell her to foreigners, because he has broken faith with her.
[Exodus 21:9] If he selects her for his son, he must grant her the rights of a daughter.
[…]
[Exodus 21:20] "If a man beats his male or female slave with a rod and the slave dies as a direct result, he must be punished,
[Exodus 21:21] but he is not to be punished if the slave gets up after a day or two, since the slave is his property.
Gen 17:23 And Abraham took Ishmael his son, and all that were born in his house, and all that were bought with his money, every male among the men of Abraham’s house; and circumcised the flesh of their foreskin in the selfsame day, as God had said unto him.
Gen 17:24 And Abraham [was] ninety years old and nine, when he was circumcised in the flesh of his foreskin.
Gen 17:25 And Ishmael his son [was] thirteen years old, when he was circumcised in the flesh of his foreskin.
Gen 17:26 In the selfsame day was Abraham circumcised, and Ishmael his son.
Gen 17:27 And all the men of his house, born in the house, and bought with money of the stranger, were circumcised with him.
Now, my contention is that:
1) Only Hebrew slaves were freed at Jubilee. The male and female slaves bought from “the nations that are round about you” were not freed, since it clearly says they were slaves for life.
2) The rule about “not ruling over [slaves] with harshness” only applies to Hebrew slaves as well, and not “foreign” slaves.
3) The Exodus 21:20-1 verses mean that if a master beats a slave and the slave can get up after two days, the master is not punished.
4) The Gen 17 verses simply mean that the male slaves in Abraham’s house were circumcised, and it was not customary to circumcise all foreign slaves.
Daniel’s contention is that:
1) All slaves, Hebrew and foreign, were freed at Jubilee.
2) Jews were commanded to treat NO slaves with harshness, not just their “brothers”.
3) The Exodus 21:20-1 verses mean that if a master beats a slave and the slave can get up after two days, the slave is not punished.
4) The Gen 17 verses mean that it is commanded to circumcise all foreign slaves.
Which one of us has the right of it?
As well, a question of my own: Exodus 21:7 means a female Hebrew slave cannot be subcontracted, right, and if she was promised or betrothed to a man and he marries her, she is to be treated like a daughter. If she was promised or betrothed to a man and he does not marry her, she is freed. Were female Hebrews ever sold into slavery without being promised or betrothed, and if so, what was their status?