In the Pythagorean thread, Cecil makes no mention of Pythagoras stating that eating beans is wrong because they look like human babies. Is this just an UL, or did Cecil not think it important enough to mention?
I’ve never heard that explanation. I’ve heard [ul][li]1. It was based on the Egyptian idea that beans were somehow “unclean.”[/li][li]2. It is based on the idea tha beans are animals (P. was also a vegetarian). The evidence for this is that they “breathe” inside the human gut.[/li][li]3. It was to prevent attacks of favism, an inherited disease that prevents the proper digestion of some beans. Favism is fairly common in parts of the Mediterranean, and is potentiall lethal.[/li][/ul]We may never know the real answer. According to one source;
According to the book Zero by Charles Seife (2000), Pythagoras eschewed beans because they “generate flatulence and are like the genetalia.” (page 27).