In the hypothetical example, the woman is only raped…but in the examples in “The Rape of Nanking,” is rape definitely the cause? Or were foreign objects/weapons also used that could have contributed? (I know that’s not really what you’re asking, but just curious.) I think the question of rape as a war tactic was brought up because of the OP and the fact that maybe those women died due to the fact that rape as a war tactic is accompanied by general violence (which tends to be employed–insertion of objects, etc.).
I took it to mean he’s so disgusted with the depths of humanity displayed by the warfare tactics described in the thread that he’d like to off himself rather than read more. But I could be wrong.
While it’s fiction, the miniseries I, Claudius portrayed a supposedly historic event where a gentlewoman (I use the term very loosely) wagered with the head of the prostitute’s guild in a fuck-off. Two lines of men, two beds, two women, some amount of gold per man for the prostitute. The prostitute eventually lost, staggering out saying, “Her insides must be made of iron!”
From my own experiences with marathon sessions of consensual sex with a single man and artificial lubricant, I can say that I can’t go for more than an hour or two without significant pain the next day, and blood on the tissue when I wipe. I can easily imagine that a longer session or a non-consensual one (where he won’t stop when asked) and one without natural or artificial lube would lead to some terrible tissue damage and leave many fissures open for infection, even if the only weapons used were penises.
Considering that rape is an act of violence and NOT a sexual act, primarily, yes, a woman could die of it. She is typically beaten and/or taken by force w/o adequate arousal/lubrication or willingness and that can result in lacerations and contusions, often severe. And not a great deal of consideration from rapists, either vaginal or anal.
If the constant sexual intercourse were consensual, no, she would not die as a result, because consensual implies that the male involved would STOP or moderate his actions when or if she indicated discomfort. Rape doesn’t typically allow for such open communication.
Did you read the part where I said that no physical coercion or injury would be involved?
Did you read the part where I said that the woman in question volunteered to participate in sexual intercourse with an infinite number of men over an unspecified amount of time?
And where in the hell did ‘anal’ come from?