Something that has always puzzled me about “Jane Eyre:” why couldn’t Edward divorce his insane wife Bertha, under English law?
I don’t know English law, but my take on his character is that he would have been ashamed to have done so. First he would have had to admit her existence, which he didn’t want to do. And he would have felt obligated to care for her anyway. Good question, though. It would have been the logical thing to do, if the law allowed it.
Divorce would have been a really radical “solution” to his situation.
Also – didn’t she have a lot of money? Wouldn’t he have lost access to that money if they divorced?
Divorce in those days carried nearly the same stigma as commiting a crime. As mentioned, he also wanted zero publicity.
Jane Eyre was published in 1846.
Until the Matrimonial Causes Act 1857, divorce could only be obtained in England through a complicated procedure including a petition to the Eccslesiastical Courts and a private Act of Parliament. Between 1800 and 1857 only ten divorces were granted per year. A wife’s insanity would be considered acceptable grounds, but it would certainly not have been a decision to take lightly, it would have attracted serious unwanted attention and would have been prohibitively expensive.
Rochester married Bertha Mason for her dowry, and even if he had managed to get a divorce, he would have lost control of the money.
Kinda scares you for Jane’s future, eh?
Oh Jane Eyre is one of my favorites… I just hate the mushy ending… I never read that part any more