Is there a rule that the candidate has to say “I’m [whoever] and I approved this message”, when they’re the one who’s doing the talking?
I can understand it if the candidate doesn’t speak or appear in the ad, or if it’s a negative ad about a rival candidate. But when I’m looking at him/her and they’re extolling their own virtues, why would anyone question whether the ad was approved?
It just seems silly. Thank God, only 3 weeks until the caucuses are over and Iowa can be forgotten for another four years.
Its all about knowing who paid for the ad. Since many ads are paid for by outside groups, the McCain-Feingold Act (aka Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act of 2002) requires a “stand by your ad” disclaimer so that its known that the ad was paid for by your campaign as opposed to an outside group. Does it seem silly if the candidate is in the ad? Sure. But that’s the way the law was written.
Candidates can be more original if they want. Arlen Specter had an ad back in the 2004 GOP primary that finished “I’m Arlen Specter and I approved this ad to tell you about my record as a fiscal conservative.”
This is General Questions, so I’ll strive to be non-political.
The law brings about some quirks. When an independent group runs a political ad to support a candidate, there must be no communication between the candidate’s campaign and the group. That’s the rule, but it has been used to a candidate’s advantage.
Let’s say a group called Americans for Somethingorother runs a very negative ad against B, in support of A. B angrily denounces the shameless ad and its lies. He demands A, his opponent, pull the ad immediately. A can truthfully say that his people didn’t run the ad, so they have no control over it. A tells the press he, too wants the ad stopped, but it’s out of his hands. The Am for Some is free to continue running the ad for as long as it still hurts B, or to run a different slam. And everything is legal. A’s own campaign’s ads play it clean, and A says, “I’m A, and I approved this ad.”