The problem is that many scholars get to the point where they forget that the writer has a conscious mind, too. If a writer tells me “No, I meant that passage to imply this”, then I’m going to consider that at least part of the motivation. If that’s not fully supported by the text, then that might mean that the author just isn’t very good, but it does not mean that she’s a Freudian automaton controlled entirely by her subconscious to the point that she doesn’t even know what she’s writing.
See, I’d ignore that. If I couldn’t figure it out just by reading the book, then as far as I’m concerned, it’s not in the book. In principle, anyway. There are plenty of times where I’ve heard the author explain his work and gone :smack: But there are just as many where I’ve heard the author explain his work and decided I liked my interpretation better. It’s not a case of, “No, what you really meant was X,” it’s just sometimes X is more interesting then whatever its supposed to mean. If ignoring the author’s intent means I enjoy his book more, I’m all for ignoring him.
That passage tho is the same in the 1818 edition, only in Ch 3. Also, in 1831, the book was reissued under Mary’s supervision & new material (mostly making Elizabeth a foundling rather than Victor’s cousin and the long explanatory foreword). I think Leonard Wolf in his ANNOTATED FRANKENSTEIN used the text of the earliest available printing.