Hopefully this belongs here. My question is the 19th amendment was ratified in 1919 - 1920 by 36 states yet I see that many of the southern states “ Maryland- 1941 all the way to Mississippi 1984 “ had not fully ratified. Was this because of the 24th amendment which was 1965. So it. Took 5 years longer to enact this law ? Please excuse my ignorance as I lived the North my whole life and never much thought about this issue being a white male, I guess “ And I apologize “I just took the history of voting for granted . Ty
When enough states ratified it, it went into effect, with or without the other states. At that point, ratification in the remaining states was a purely symbolic gesture. Some politicians might have objected to taking purely symbolic gestures, and others might have preferred the symbolic value of not ratifying it. Plus, of course, some who were actually in the second category but claimed to be in the first as cover.
As @Chronos says, a Constitutional amendment is binding on all states once two-thirds have approved, so there was no point beyond symbolism in ratification by the remaining states. Ratifying the 19th Amendment could have been controversial in these states even decades later (witness the furor over the ERA) so why bother to have the fight?
Which later case even brought up the question of whether once a state votes to ratify do they still have the option to take that back while the ratification is still open (not answered since it became moot).
But yes, once you get the required supermajority of states certified, the amendment becomes a national constitutional mandate that takes precedence over any state law, nobody else needs to vote further.
Plus, neither amendment grants a right to vote.
Each one prohibits discrimination, on different grounds, when there is a right to vote set out in some other enactment.
Of course, this should be three-fourths. It’s a two-thirds majority of Congress that’s required to propose the amendment (or a convention called by two-thirds of states). Mea culpa.