Hi
I have a question regarding the 1351 Statute of laborer and how it unraveled. I’m not sure if the gentry/nobility abused the law by illegally offering the peasants more thus competing with other landowners for labor or abused it by offering peasants less than the statute stipulated. According to the statute, all able-bodies peasants (up until the age of 60) were compelled to work for the same wages as had prevailed during the Black Death, and were forbidden to refuse on pain of imprisonment. Were the nobles/gentry offering prices below or above the stipulated wages? The following seems to suggest that landowners were taking advantage of the fixed wages to offer more than the next landowner and thereby attract scarce labor to work their land:
“War and Peace and War"by Peter Turchin : p. 223 " Characteristically, the employers (the gentry) were not prosecuted for offering illegal wages, although many laborers were punished for accepting them. The labor legislation, in general, was the focus of much popular hatred, and its enforcement was one of the most important causes of the peasant revolts of 1381”
I look forward to your feedback
davidmich