A good rule of thumb in economics is that when someone tells you the facts are absolutely incontrovertible, start looking for his or her agenda. Because things are rarely that cut-and-dried. That applies to both the right and left, BTW.
See, you’re acting as if the facts are not in dispute. You claim that the actual incomes of the poorest have gone down since 1980. This is not, in fact, easy to determine. You can massage the numbers in lots of ways to make the answer come out the way you want it to.
For example, the myth that incomes have decreased may have come from Robert Reich, who has been spouting this for a while now, and using Census data from 1990 to 1997 to prove his point. And during that time, the mean income of the lowest 5% did in fact decline. But the numbers were available all the way up to 2000. Why didn’t he use them? Because there is a sharp upward spike in 1997, and the poorest 5% of society did quite well in the last three years. Here are the hard numbers, from the U.S. Census Bureau:
Median Income in 1999 dollars:
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Year Males Females Bottom 5% of Households
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1999 $30,121 $18,777 $9,940
1998 29,648 18,436 9,427
1997 27,963 17,489 9,209
1996 27,452 17,199 9,127
1995 27,465 17,002 9,128
1994 26,867 16,531 8,726
1993 26,226 16,592 8,546
1992 26,229 16,506 8,654
1991 26,832 16,210 8,884
1990 27,506 15,958 9,171
1989 28,627 16,020 9,433
1988 29,133 15,947 9,159
1987 29,001 15,874 9,044
1986 28,815 15,483 9,035
1985 27,975 14,974 8,976
1984 27,578 14,555 8,989
1983 27,139 14,402 8,763
1982 27,125 14,004 8,719
1981 28,108 13,750 8,942
The table above shows, if anything that median incomes and below have not changed much in 20 years. But a Conservative pundit reading those numbers might argue that the poor started to do better under Reagan (their incomes increasing from 8,942 in his first year to 9,159 in his last), and then started to decline under Clinton. Furthermore, they might claim that the increase under Clinton came only after the Welfare Reform act was passed, which Clinton vetoed twice. In other words, Republicans are good for the poor, and Democrats are bad.
But can that reasonably be extrapolated from these numbers? Nah. There is too much variance, and the changes are small. If you overlaid those incomes over GDP growth, you might be able to draw opposite conclusions. And what about changes in the way the bottom quintile is measured? If the rich made out like bandits, wouldn’t that cause the bottom quintile to be inflated just by moving the measuring stick?
Then you might notice that women made out like bandits, seeing an average income increase almost as great as the richest quintile. Did that come at someone’s expense? If so, whose?
Then you might argue that demographic shifts are to blame. Or that education inequality is to blame. Or that the economy has changed in such a way as to reduce the demand for unskilled labor, thus holding their wages lower.
One thing is clear: The rich certainly gained far more in the last 20 years than did the poor, so there is certainly an increase in inequality. What isn’t clear is whether or not those gains came at the expense of the poor. Perhaps the massive economic gains we’ve seen in the last 20 years are the only thing that has kept the incomes of the poorest quintile from collapsing completely.
If you go to the Census site, the first thing that will strike you is the sheer volume of the data. Income measurements alone span about 20 tables. There are measurements by age, education, marital status, quintile, etc. If you want to sift through it all and extract only the data that makes your political points, you can probably find it.
For example, another measure of how the poor are doing is by using the poverty index. In 1981, 14% of the people were below the poverty line. In 1999, that number has dropped to 11.8%. A conservative could then use those statistics to argue that our economic gains have helped the poor out a lot.
But that’s not even a fair measure, because we’d have to look at things like education, immigration, and a host of other factors before we could point at a political policy and claim that it is responsible.
So my question stands: Is inequality the appropriate measure? If not, what is? If so, why?