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Just to answer the pork example (since that’s the one you’re using): if this is the case, then why a blanket prohibition on any land animal that does not both possess split hooves and chew its cud, a broad category which just happens to include the pig? Did the ancient Hebrews examine the edibility of every single animal and conclude that these were the healthiest (maybe Moses had a nice private zoo which included pandas, kangaroos and armadillos)? Did they notice that pig was bad and therefore created a category for excluding them? Odd category to create.
Or did they institute laws like that due to some sort of religious significance, and by happy chance, they came down with fewer diseases than pork-eaters are afflicted by?
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I’m not very familiar with the laws of Kashrus, or which animals are safer than other to eat. Do animals in this broader category of animals (with split hooves and chew their cud) have a greater risk than others to be dangerous to eat?
If so, then getting back to my original question, people could have noticed that eating these animals caused people to get sick, and institued the law for this non-religious reason.
If there is no greater risk, and just the pig is dangerous, then banning who whole group doesn’t help society as much as just banning the pig. This makes law somewhat faulty, and a law that came from a scientific method (banning only the pig) might have served society better.
Perhaps there are other benificial reasons for banning the whole category.
Whatever reason you can think of for it benefitting society, people could have noticed this and made the for that reason.
Regarding your example of the fields lying fallow, is IS an idiot idea for them to all to do it at once. I have to admit, I’m not sure I see your point. Are you saying that because it’s flawed it couldn’t have come from a secular source? Even non-religious leader make mistakes.
A possible scenario for this is that one piece of land was fallow for a season for whatever reason (owner died, was traveling, was lazy, who knows), then the king noticed the next season when it was growing the crops were better. Being perhaps an idiot, he orders that all fields lay fallow for a season.
My original question was, “has there ever been a religious practice or belief that helped a society, that could not have been started simply to help society, without a religious aspect?” I’m not sure how showing that these laws are flawed argues against the idea that these practices could have from secular sources. It more argues to me that a secular source would have made better ideas.
Like I stated before, the question is somewhat flawed. If there is benefit of a law to society, then people in the society can notice this and use the law, with just the secular reason of it’s benefit to drive that law. No matter what the source is.