Actually, the discussion was on cumulative cases of AIDS, and was to counter KellyM’s notion that heterosexual transmission was the primary method of transmission of AIDS in America.
And DMC’s link still lists homosexual contacts as the source of AIDS transmission in America outscoring heterosexual transmission among males by about five to one, and among total cases about two to one.
Now as always, homosexual anal intercourse is now, and has always been, the most common/primary/leading/however you want to phrase it method of the transmission of AIDS in America.
An American who got AIDS yesterday is far more likely to have gotten it from homosexual anal intercourse than from any other source.
This simply isn’t true. If large number of men contracted AIDS without getting it from sex with men (or IV drugs), they would show up in the statistics.
Based on what we know about the mechanics of intercourse (men transfer significantly more of their bodily fluids to women during intercourse than vice versa), we would expect that more women would be infected from heterosexual contact than men. We do see this.
If heterosexual transmission from female to male is so common, why so few heterosexual men with AIDS (presuming no IV drugs)? If we are misidentifying risk factors so grossly, why do our data agree so closely with our theory?
There is not, nor is there likely to be, an explosion of AIDS into the heterosexual populations of America and/or Western Europe. Statements that there is are scare tactics designed to get the attention of the worried well - and funding.
AIDS is not a “disease of everyone.” The AIDS virus does discriminate.
Regards,
Shodan