I think this is different enough from the other threads related to the Insurrection section of amendment 14.
Why is section 5 essentially being ignored in this case: Congress shall have the power to enforce, by appropriate legislation, the provisions of this article.
With this wording, it seems that the individual states don’t have this power, but congress does.
It seems so obvious to me that I’m sure I’m missing something as to why this isn’t a key part of the conversation.
The Supreme Court has fluctuated on the scope of section 5, which applies to all of the 14th Amendment, not just to section 3.
However, it appears that section 5 does not exclude state enforcement of the 14th Amendment, and does not give Congress sole authority to enforce the terms of the 14th Amendment.
From the 1873 Slaughter-House Cases:
By this approach, Congress only has power under s.5 if a state doesn’t respect the terms of the 14th Amendment.
The Wikipedia article on the 14th Amendment goes on to say:
However, in City of Boerne v. Flores (1997),[259] the Court narrowed Congress’s enforcement power, holding that Congress may not enact legislation under Section 5 that substantively defines or interprets Fourteenth Amendment rights.[253
Assuming that’s a fair summary, it seems to undercut the argument that s.3 has no force or effect unless defined by Congressional legislation.
Since s.5 applies to all of the 14th, it can’t have different scope depending on which section of the 14th is under consideration, I would think. If Congress can’t use s.5 to define terms under the civil rights sections of the 14th, seems difficult to see why Congress could use s.5 to define terms under s.3.
I think even Mitchell agreed that states have this power for state offices. He raised the point that states do not have this power for Federal offices.
Supreme court unanimously says “responsibility for enforcing Section 3 against federal officeholders and candidates rests with Congress and not the States,”