OK, all of you lawyer-types…I’ve been scouring google.com for an answer to this question, but I can’t find anything definitive.
I’m looking at an apartment in a house that’s up for sale. If I sign a 1-year lease on this apartment, and the house is later sold, what happens to me? Will the new owner be obligated to honor my lease until it expires, or could I be forced to move out as soon as the new owner takes possession? I can’t decipher from what I’ve read whether the lease would automatically transfer as a matter of law, or if I’d have to have something specifically written in the lease that I get to stay even if the house is sold.
Does anyone know for sure? If it does, in fact, need to be written in the lease, what language do I need to make sure is included in order to protect myself?
The new owners are bound by the lease. Look over the lease carefully. They are usually written so that it is easier for the leasor to get out of it than the leasee [you].
IANAL, but I do own rental property. The rules will vary by state, but in Texas if you sell a rental property, any leases normally become null and void.
IANAL but I am a commercial real estate agent who writes a lot of commercial leases. Residential leases may differ somewhat but typically the new owners must honor the lease. The exception is if the current (or new) owner goes into bankruptcy. All leases I typically write or review are subject to the mortgage if one is present and the bank has the power to void all leases in this situation if they so choose. Most of the time this is a non-issue as the value of of a leased investment property is/are the leases in place and the last theing a bank wants to do is lose the existing income (unless it’s way below market) and the opportunity to sell it to another investor for a reasonable price.
IANAL but I am a commercial real estate agent who writes a lot of commercial leases. Residential leases may differ somewhat but typically the new owners must honor the lease. The exception is if the current (or new) owner goes into bankruptcy. All leases I typically write or review are subject to the mortgage if one is present and the bank has the power to void all leases in this situation if they so choose. Most of the time this is a non-issue as the value of of a leased investment property is/are the leases in place and the last thing a bank wants to do is lose the existing income (unless it’s way below market) and the opportunity to sell it to another investor for a reasonable price.
This would depend on the state you are in. Try Tenants Handbook for the state you are in. They have stuff like that at nolo.com (Nolo Press)…read your contract too.
Depends entirely on the jurisdiction in which you live. Here in Ontario, there would be some paperwork and a notice period, but ultimately if the new landlord wanted the property for his or her own personal use, the answer would be “Bu-bye!” The same pretty much goes for renovations in most instances, though there are exceptions. About the only shot you would have would be if the new landlord wanted to turf you simply to find a higher paying tennant.