[QUOTE=Wee Bairn]
How abut a six foot gate, that opens and closes by remote control. Most apartment complexes I have seen utilize these to achieve samer puporse.
No one here has cited regulations that they are absolutely legal in the one particular scenario I encountered- one small sign. The statutes quoted, if in effect everywhere in the US, there would be debate if it constituted adequate warning. My point is, in the scenario I personally encountered, I would argue adequate warning was not present.
I have seen People’s Court cases where someone argued and won (I know, I know citing People’s Court) brcasue a no parking sign was viewed as adequate (small, faded and confusing IIRC). Maybe other setups of these in other towns are blatantly obvious. But consider the fact that my experience and exposure to this may not be the same with those in other citites and countries. Maybe if some of you saw the one I saw, you would say “I agree, this one is not like the ones I see, it is not marked enough”. 
And I get out and travel fairly often, live in a fairly large city, but have seen these once in my life- in an airport parking lot. I do not frequent public parking lots often, but have never even seen them when driving by them.
IOW, if these are legal, I think in my particular case, it could possibly be argued and won based on not being marked well enough.
[/QUOTE]
AHHHHHHH, well, now we are talking the issue not of legality, but of negligence.
There are certain actions which are legal to engage in, but which if not done with proper care, can result in liability for any damage proximately caused. Proper care is usually considered the care that would be taken by a reasonably prudent person under similar circumstances. Damages “proximately” caused can be a fun law exam question, but would certainly include tire damage from a failure to warn of tire spikes (assuming that was considered a lack of due care).
Now, if there is in the political subdivision the spikes are located a set of regulations regarding proper use and signage of them, and a property owner fails to follow those rules/ordinances/statutes, then one could argue that the owner would be “negligent per se.” This puts the burden of proof onto the owner to show that the care taken WAS proper, even though it didn’t follow the statutory/regulatory law; the assumption by the court will be that the “illegal” use of the spikes is a lack of due care without any further offer of evidence by the injured party. Mind you, the damage complained of has to be the sort of damage the law seems to contemplate preventing, but again, here, that would be obviuosly the case (as opposed to, say, someone’s beach ball being punctured by the spikes in a strong wind).
So, in a given individual instance of use of the spikes, and a person with damaged tires, the calculus would go like this:
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Is the property owner required to exercise due care with regard to someone who uses the lot? (Here, one can presume that there will be an answer of “no” f the person damages their tires while attempting to leave without paying, and “yes” if the person backs up over the spikes for less nefarious reasons).
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Is there a state statute regarding use of the spikes? Is there a town ordinance? Is there a rule/regulation adopted by some body with authority?
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If there is, did the property owner who installed the spikes follow it/them?
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If yes, was there some other factor about the installation that was not what a reasonable person, exercising the care required, would have done?
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If the answer to 3 is no, then can the property owner offer any evidence sufficient to overcome the presumption that he/she was negligent?
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Can we establish that there wasn’t any fault on our own part in backing up over the tires?
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If not, then our damages will be reduced, depending upon the state we are in: in a contributory negligence state, we may be barred from recovering at all, if it is felt we were more at fault in causing the situation than the property owner was; in a comparative negligence state, our % of fault in causing the tire damage will be determined by the fact-finder, and our recovery reduced in proportion.
So, to restate what I said in my last post:
*2. They are legal. You’ve been answered this. They are legal because:
a. There is no specific law that prohibits the use of them, and
b. There is no common law principle which would compensate you as the owner of a vehicle who drives over them, so long as they are not negligently installed.*
Oh, and one more point. People have talked about regulations regarding installation of these devices, but no one has cited such a regulation or ordinance. Telmark made a tangential reference to them in one post. Wee Bairn, you might try simply searching to find such an ordinace, perhaps even with regard to the city in which you live.