Nope. Totally wrong; completely, entirely at odds with rudimentary economics, arithmetic, and logic.
First of all, it is obviously silly to suggest “foreigners” aren’t a profitable market for drug companies, for the simple reason that if they were not, drug companies would not be bothered to sell their products there. Why would Pfizer or Sanofi go to the trouble, risk, and legal peril of selling a drug in France they don’t make a lot of money off? Wouldn’t that be stupid?
Secondly, if the USA is where all the profit is, why are there huge pharma companies and CROs based ikn other countries? Novartis is Swiss. I think Roche is, too. Sanofi, who I randomly named just now, is French. (France is a big pharma country.) GSK is British. Of the major contract research orgs, Chiltern is in Britain, ICON is in Ireland, and so on. Funny how the foreigners seem to have made money off this stuff.
Finally, lower drug prices in pother countries have absolutely nothing to do with high drug prices in the USA. Nothing at all.
Allow me to explain. Drug prices in the USA are, to an extent that matters, a completely wide open free market. If Lilly comes up with a new drug, which I’ll call Newdrugutin, and gets it through Phase 3 testing, it will be offered for sale in all the countries they can get approval for (which will be pretty much all of them.) In the USA, that price will be set at what they assume to be the profit maximizing price - the price point at which their net revenue will be maximized. While this won’t be one price all the time (they may offer free samples, for instance, through physicians) it’ll be pretty close to one price, and any variance from that price will mean they make less money. If they correctly set the market clearing price at, say, $50 a dose, then it’s $50 a dose. If it were less, they’d lose money by not charging enough. If it were more, they’d lose money by making more per dose but selling far fewer doses. Over time the drug may have to be cheaper (due to reduced demand, more competitors, etc.) or go up (inflation, increased demand, etc.) but the price will always be set at the profit maximizing price. If it’s not, the drug company appearently doesn’t want to make money.
In, say, Canada, things are different. The price of the drug must be approved with the PMPRB - I’m not going to type it out because who cares - which is effectively a group that determined the price based on
- A variety of criteria to determine what price is fair and
- in truth, some unofficial negotiation with the drug maker so they don’t just say “the hell with Canada.”
This is a simplification - it is a complex process and the nature of it depends on whether we’re talking about new drugs, new doses of existing drugs, ANDs, packaging changes, inflationary adjustments, etc. - but you get the idea. At the end of this process, let us suppose that the PMPRB determines that a dose of Newdrugutin should be sold in Canada for $30 a dose.
Tell me; how does that affect the price of the drug in the USA?
It doesn’t. It would make no sense at all for it to. If Lilly, frustrated with only being able to sell Newdrugutin at $30 in Canada, were to raise the price in the USA, they will LOSE MONEY. The price of $50 in America is, as we have seen, the profit maximizing price; increasing it will not make more money. If an increase were to make more money, they would have already raised it no matter what Canadians paid for it; it would make sense to raise it simply for that reason alone, even if Canadians were paying the same amount. The price in the USA is determined by its market forces, nothing else. The price Canadians pay (or people in France, Australia, Germany…) isn’t going to make any measurable difference to the American market.
You cannot get around this. A company cannot just arbitrarily raise the price of one product to make up for lose profit in another. If they could, why doesn’t every drug in the USA literally cost a billion dollars a pill?