Of course there was no vote in that case. There was no procedure available for leaving the British empire, a procedure the Rebels could have “won” by being numerous enough. Independence was won through war — an extra-legal procedure (to put it lightly).
In fact the rebels weren’t even in the majority anyway. At the time of the American Revolution, it was estimated that the colonists were roughly split evenly among Loyalists, rebels, and the indifferent. If the Brits had allowed a referendum on the question of independence, those in favor of it might very well have lost.
Not that there was the remotest chance of a referendum being called on any issue in 1776, here or anywhere.
I see your point but if like you said it was evenly divided and the loyalists and the indifferent out-weighted the rebels.
Did the US have the right to secede in 1776 and if yes why would it be wrong for another state or city to secede?
I know they won through war but shouldn’t the majority rule every time? I mean, wasn’ it hypocritcal of the US to hold elections at that time where the majority wanted to be a part of the British empire?
Not only that, there were 13 states in the US under the Articles of Confederation. Nine of those states seceded and formed a new United States under the Constitution. What would have happened if the any of the other 4 states did not ratified the Constitution? A very real possibility since Rhode Island refused to sign it without a Bill of Rights.
Yeah, true good points Saint Cad and thanks for weighing in on the debate. I think it is kind of hypocritical that the US would pull a hissy fit if a state or city seceded. Even with a vote, even though, when the US first formed no vote was involved.