Joey_P
July 22, 2014, 12:54am
105
It’s hard to see this as not being excessive…
Czarcasm, if you were to correctly read my post i did not mention anything as ‘fact’, merely something that ‘has been said’.
I was trying to make the point that most of us now recognize that there are many functioning psychopaths within society, something that interests me. I do not pretend to know much on the subject, so please forgive me ‘Czarcasm’ for any future posts that do not contain accurate info.
I never asked for it to be considered a statement of fact, please read my previous post again. I think you want to reconsider using the word ‘we’, I think other people have read and understood my post as intended.
Since “psychopath” is a legal term rather than a medical term, and since legalities change from location to location, and since none of the laws that deal with “psychopathy” as they describe it get into its permanency there can be no factual answer to this question. Calls for individual opinions, probably best suited for Great Debates or IMHO?
IMO, the OP would have been best off asking for the thread to be closed and re-writing it with that line left out (since it was just a throwaway line), then reporting Czarcasm if he brings it up again in the new thread.