hmmm…the problem with this is, X^(1/X) isn’t well-behaved close to zero (as X → 0, 1/X → infinity, so X^(1/X) → infinity). You could measure the area under the curve X^(1/X) from, say, .0000001 to 1, but you can’t get infinitely close to 0 because the closer you get, the bigger the area gets, until you hit 0 and the function stops being well-defined.
That and, I don’t have the foggiest damn idea of how to integrate X^X dx. Or X^(1/X) dx.
Doh! (a number < 1)^(a big honkin’ number) != (another big honkin’ number)
x[sup]1/x[/sup] does indeed approach zero, not infinity. I’m still not sure how to integrate it though. If there is a way, then here’s what you do:
Take the integral from 0 to 1 of x[sup]x[/sup], and subtract the integral from 0 to 1 of x[sup]1/x[/sup]. This works because x[sup]x[/sup] > x[sup]1/x[/sup] for 0 < x < 1 .
I say, just take a bunch of values, put it in Excel, and do it by hand.
Doing the - take a bunch of values, throw them in excel, and guess and round, I’m getting ~.43… but that makes a number of wild assumptions, among which is that I remember how to do this at all. (It’s been a while.)
My calculator’s usually pretty good about this, and it gets 0.42993371014878. I wouldn’t count on all those decimals being correct, but probably most of them.
It’s still possible that this problem can be solved analytically, even if the indefinite integral of x[sup]x[/sup] cannot. I’m looking for a trick, but no luck yet…