OK, but I’m just not buying this one-off line in the story:
North Carolinians don’t pronounce “voice” like “vice” or “room” like “rome”. I suspect an over-zealous reporter took something someone said about the accents having echos in regional NC dialects and extrapolated that to “completely intelligible”.
Wow, that’s fascinating. I had no idea regarding this difference. As a northerner, I would find it rude for the shop clerk to finish what he’s doing before attending to me. In the culture I grew up with, it’s rude to keep a customer waiting.
I have read a lot of things by David Crystal and I would be very surprised if he had said anything close to there being an American accent that preserved Shakespeare’s English. In fact, that kind of statement is well known as an urban legend.
I can’t be arsed to read through the whole thread, but I feel obliged to point out that there is no one, single, homogeneous “Southern” accent! I’m originally from east Tennessee, so the dialect I spoke growing up is what’s known as Appalachian English. (Being educated now, in most circumstances, and certainly in professional contexts, I speak the “accentless” Standard American English.)
Folks from the Piedmont and Plantation Crescent sound funny to me. Creole English sounds funny to me. Mississippi River Delta English sounds funny to me. Even some northern Florida accents sound funny to me. But folk from east TN, southwestern VA, western NC, and northern GA, all sound normal to me.
Hollywood screenwriters in particular are really bad at not recognizing the diversity of Southern American English accents and dialects.
Not for the first time, I find myself pointing out on the SDMB that Crystal’s book on his collaboration with the Globe - Pronouncing Shakespeare (Cambridge University Press, 2005) - specifically repudiates the idea that any modern accents sound much like those in early-modern England. This is what he says about the feedback from the original pronunciation production of Romeo and Juliet in 2004.
I can’t imagine how pronouncing words funny - voice as “vice”, for example - will help make the language more clear. Sure, it may help the puns stand out better, and may fix some rhymes, but making the text intelligible?
I listed to the audio sample. I find that pacing and emphasis goes a lot farther toward clarity than the variance in pronunciation shown. Yeah, the “Shakespearean English” had a bit more edge and lilt than the contemporary British accent the speaker used, but both were reasonably clear, and suffered from the same problems of the reader’s pacing and emphasis.
E.g., the first line stated is “Why then will I no more”
In both versions, it is flat, without emphasis. But from the play Troilus and Cressida, that line should be conveying meaning. Hector and Ajax are engaged in a fight, and then the fight is stopped. Diomedes tells them they should stop fighting (“no more”). Ajax states that he is still ready to fight. Hector then begins his paragragh to explain why they shouldn’t be fighting. His line is to say “why I will stop fighting”.
Diomedes: As Hector pleases.
Hector: Why, then I will no more.
There’s a pause annoted by a comma after the “Why”, which the reader runs right over. In both dialects.
terentii, the BBC news story you linked to doesn’t reference any study. It just quotes, possibly inaccurately, a number of opinions about Shakespeare’s original pronunciation. So have a nice time in Canada, but until you return we’ve got nothing to back up your claim. On the other hand, we’ve got references like the one I linked to in my post that deny that Shakespeare spoke Appalachian English. Another such reference is a section of the book Word Myths by David Wilton which also debunks this myth.
I admit my knowledge of Southern American accents only goes as far as a few people I’ve met and those I’ve seen on the telly, but to compare them to a British accent (be it English, Irish Scottish or Welsh) seems to be laughable and very confusing. Yes, the British accent may have changed in the centuries that proceeded the very first settlers to build towns in the US, but we have recorded examples of British accents from Edison’s day and none have ever been close to those which I’ve heard in my, admittedly limited, experience.
I do, though, hear an Irish influence in some Boston and New York deliveries (on screen, I might add) and certainly a home counties influence in some accents on the east coast of the US, so I can’t imagine I’m deaf to accents at all.
On second thoughts, there is a drift in some Scottish (Glaswegian, for example) and southern Irish accents which are similar to those I’ve heard from the South which, over time, could have developed into a Louisianian or Mississippian voice but the clipped, efficient and Franco/Germanic tone of SE England I don’t believe has any relation to those.
I’m baffled as to why people waste their time posting myths that they read or heard so long ago that they don’t even remember the source of them, but they can’t be bothered to read a good book on the subject which could clear up their misunderstandings very quickly. There are at least two fairly short books written at a level suitable for pretty much any adult (or any child who’s a good reader) that address most of the standard myths about language - Word Myths by David Wilton and Language Myths, edited by Laurie Bauer and Peter Trudgill. Reading them will be a much better use of your time than spending it posting some half-remembered notions about language that you heard years ago.
There is no such thing as a Southern accent. There is a type of Standard American English more common in the urban areas of the South. Its twangy in Dallas, choppy and brisk in Houston, stereotypically Southern in Atlanta, non-rhotic in coastal Georgia (the last place the Southern non-rhotic accents survive, round voweled in North Carolina, round vowels plus stretched lips in Virginia, and extreme round vowels in Maryland. Other than this varied urban accent there is no Southern accent. Just many local variations that have their own histories. New Orleans “yat” is the most obvious example.
And you also have to remember that so-called “Ebonics” is not very distinct from Southern accents.
And everyone must understand that “y’all” is the second person plural gender neutral pronoun English needs so badly.
I’ve traveled quite a bit and have found the accent of the NC Outer Banks (and Eastern Virginia) closer to any British English dialect than any other American accent I have heard. I have noticed a similar accent in parts of Eastern Canada as well. To be sure, I’m no expert in the field, so I’m just sharing personal experience. In my opinion, the OB accent is very close to what Edward Teach (Blackbeard) and his fellow pirates may have sounded like.
Woah, that’s rather extreme. =) I think that you’re the only person who really supported my OP, to a much stronger level than I actually do. It was really just a hunch for me… I’ve read through the posts and something came to my mind (someone mentioned it in a post somewhere) - What about French and Spanish influences? Is the Southern accent prevalent in areas of the South where French and Spanish influences are not very significant, such as Tennessee (I presume)?
And with respect to the Native American contributions, were there more Native Americans living in the South during the early colonial period prior to the American Revolution, more African-Americans, or more French and Spanish speakers?
I believe that accent acquisition is inseparable from language acquisition in and of itself, and thus accents develop predominantly when an individual’s primary language is acquired (late infancy/early childhood). How can the contributions of French and Spanish languages be compared and contrasted with those of African-Americans.