A trivial question I know, but one that has been bothering me for several days. I’ve asked friends etc but no-one knows the answer or is sufficiently interested in pursuing it.
So…Why is “Philippines” spelt with a “PH” and “Filipino” spelt with an “F”? Is there some language rule in effect that I am blissfully unaware of? What’s it all about?
I don’t know. Probably because “that’s the way it’s always been.”
However, IIRC, the Tagalog (native language) actually spells it with a “P” because there is not “F” sound native to that language.
I suspect that it is because the natives of the Islas Filipinas (the name under Spanish colonism) decided that they were Filipinos, period, no matter who was in charge.
After the Americans bought the Phillippines in 1898 (Treaty of Paris: $20M; the Spanish also ceded Guam and Puerto Rico for free, and agreed to leave Cuba) I imagine they chose to use the most different variant spelling they could, to show their ownership. But it’s easier to change a map than a person’s identity. If the natives still consider themselves ‘filipinos’, and we have to deal with them, it’s best just to go along.
I think I’ll start a separate thread on this practice…
All I could say is that the Philippines are names after
King Philip of Spain, and that Filipino comes from the Spanish, and originally referred to a person specifically of Spanish decent in the Philippines. I’m assuming Filipino reflects the Spanish spelling, but exactly what the reason is…hmmm…maybe there’s a hint in there for someone with a more intuitive mind…
What he said:
The native Filipino decided to stick with the Spanish name of the islands. They were using it at least 9 years before the U.S. took over.
Esprix