I never had the chance to meet my grandfather. He had a stroke in 1973 which caused him to retire. I do not have his original hospitalization record from 1973.
I however have a January 1974 (10 months after stroke) hospital record.
He was hospitalized at that time for a case of Pleurisy and the Doctors also decided to check his stroke recovery progress.
The stroke effected his right side and when he had the stroke. It notes when he had the stroke he at first presented with right hemiplegia , and he was noted to have made remarkable progress in that he “regained power and speed.” He was also noted to have gained “remarkable” control over his speech and limbs.
On neurological exam in 1974 (10 months after stroke), He
- Was noted to have increased muscle tone on the upper right and lower right limbs on a neurological exam.
- Had absent sensations on the right sole.
- No plantar flex in his right sole.
- Had “exaggerated” deep jerk reflexes in his right upper and lower limbs.
His limbs on the left side were normal.
- The “higher functions” of his CNS were normal as were his cranial nerves. He had no clonus.
Neck, back, and other physical areas were marked “WNL”
My mother recalls that after the stroke he did not need the use of a cane, and that to the best of her memory, he was able to talk normally. She did recall that at times, he would cry when he meant to laugh, and that when nervous, he would stutter (although not otherwise). He retired after the stroke but my mother and aunt felt he was able to watch their infant children. Being that she was only in her 20s, she cannot recall much more. My questions are:
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Due to the physical impairments listed above (the absent sensations in right sole, increased muscle tone) would he have walked ‘funny’ or had a limp after the stroke? He did not need a cane. Would he have proper use of his right arm or would it have been rigid when he walked?
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As it it says the higher functions of his CNS were normal, does that mean he would not have come off, for lack of a more elegant term, “brain damaged” in a regular conversation? Would it have effected his IQ/cognitive abilities? If he had profound disabilities such as a language/talking or memory problem due to the stroke, would it have been noted under the higher functions of his CNS? Would he have presented as “normal” outside of the issues I have noted?
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Would the neurological exam in 1974 have noted any profound problems such as mental retardation due to the stroke, or ataxic gait resulting from the stroke? His mental status was noted as “cooperative”, but that’s all the exam says about mental status.