See, I keep asking about this and I do not seem to be able to get you to do my research for me. 
From the Congressional report on prewar intelligence.
The IC’s understanding of the Iraqi threat to regional stability and security evolved from the end of the first Gulf War in 1991 until early 2003, but the assessments came to the same general conclusions that Saddam Hussein: was unpredictable and aggressive; retained the capability to strike militarily in the region; and, would probably not choose to use force against neighbors as long as U.S. and Coalition forces were in the region. The body of assessments showed that Iraqi military capabilities had steadily degraded following defeat in the first Gulf War in 1991. Analysts also believed those capabilities would continue to erode as long as economic sanctions remained in place.
If I challenge your contention that there was an intelligence agency consensus that Saddam was unlikely to attack, would you provide a source?
What I have been trying to get accross, is that this is true going by the letter of international law (whatever that means). But preemptive war is simply a way to start a war in defence of oneself. It has long been agreed (tacitly, not necessarily explicitly) that such a defensive first strike must only be allowed in cases where the threat is clear and obvious. What Bush has said is that this stricture is not sufficient to meet the threats of the new century. That another justification for military action is necessary. He attempted to lay out a case that imminent may not mean imminent on a known date. Perhaps you would be happier if he invented an entirely new term. Instead of calling it preemptive war, we could call it defensive war or something along those lines.
Just to check ourselves, If we had evidence that aQ had WMD in 1995, we would not have been justified in attacking them or those who harbored them. Correct?
You mean he did not use the best international law information?
I’ll back off of that it it helps. I’m not confident that a possible attack many years from now is what is meant in the Bush doctrine. I used that phrase in error. What I was trying to get accross was the idea that a threat in the future may not have to be known with complete confidence or complete detail for it to qualify as a threat legitimately addressed by preemptive military action.
Like this:
No, I am contending that you guys are clinging to a definition of imminent which is explicitely known. It could be many months, as long as we know for a certainty that it is inevitable. The time frame is less important, I think to your use of the word, than the certainty.
Let me ask you in all seriousness. If we had had intelligence in 1995 that aQ had some WMD and Clinton had ordered an invasion of Afghanistan in order to stop its being used against America or her allies, and given that he may not have had specific intelligence regarding aQ’s intentions for thier WMD, would you have condemned such an attack as not allowed under the terms of preemptive war?
Please try to answer this. I am not trying to trap you with an irrelevant hypothetical. I am trying to understand your position regarding the conditions necessary for a justified first strike.
That is entirely fair. I disagree.
No, he would not. But then he was not president.
Just for the record, I have not said that I tolerated the invasion of Iraq. I have most certainly not applauded it.