In another thread abou the Travon Martin shooting, a poster posted this excerpt from, I presume, the Florida criminal code:
It seems to be saying that there is an implicit warrant. I supposed that could be attacked it court, just like any other warrant, but it sounds to me like the police don’t have to convince a judge that probable cause exists, they just have to say it exists. What am I missing here?
At first blush (rosé), I would think the test now, survive an attack on probable cause later, is a balance of protecting rights (PC needs to be there) with preserving evidence. The time factor in securing a warrant and all.
Was there any indications that Zimmerman was “if there is probable cause to believe that the person was using a firearm while under the influence of alcoholic beverages or controlled substances”