The Aesthetical Jesus - Part III

Yes, it can be dizzying, if only because I have (re)defined words in such unusual ways. I’m honestly not sure whether prior study of philosophy helps or harms! The thing is, though, that certain philosophies have become a part of the public conscience. Like existentialism, for example. And so, I know how difficult it can be to come upon a word like “goodness” and try not to apply an ethical or moral implication, or even better, not to think of morality or ethics at all. Take your time. I’m looking forward to your input.

You know. After reading over my post to you, I’m sorry that I even said anything that implied you were off-topic or posting about aesthetics in se. You were simply doing what the OP asked for; namely, providing a metaphor for love. I hope you’ll accept my apology for what must have seemed at the very least condescending.

To what “creature” do you refer?

Actually, I did define hate. But it was only parenthetical, and so it might have been easy to miss. I defined it as an emotion. Beyond that, people can feel free to argue (but not here, please) about the nature of hatred. But here, all that is relevant about hatred is to make the point that it is not the opposite of love. Rather, sin is the opposite of love. I don’t know whether love can use hatred for its purpose of spreading goodness, but it is not a metaphysical impossibility.

As it turns out, we’ve established that. It was Mr. Dibble, I believe, who first noted and identified its weakness.

Correction:

It was Mr. Dibble who pointed out the weakness in my contemplation of structure versus system. It was Revenant Threshold who pointed out weaknesses in the analogy proper.

Jees, another correction:

I wrote (to other-wise): “The thing is, though, that certain philosophies have become a part of the public conscience.”

That should, of course, be “The thing is, though, that certain philosophies have become a part of the public consciousness.”

No prob. My offering is rather cryptic, to say the least.
I haven’t read parts I and II, so my ability to contribute to this conversation is probably limited. But the OP for part III immediately brought this Liszt piece to my mind as a metaphor for love. Also- based only on my own interpretation of the piece and the ‘edification’ brought by it- it speaks to some of the points raised in this thread, namely:
-Love isn’t stable.
-We want to deny that, but in the end cannot.
-That’s sad, but love is still very much worth it.

Not much to say about evil, ethics or sin in the piece as far as I can tell.

Further, you seem to be rather earnest about this project, and my offering was a little bit of an experiment. Hmmm, let’s see if I can ‘give some love’ to Liberal. If he’s edified, well then that’s ‘good’ by his own reckoning. And so you get a positive piece of experimental data to back up your theory.

I’m in the habit of wanting to ‘flesh out’ everything, this is one more example. Again, I’m not out to harm your project, just thought I’d give you something to chew on.

Cheers.

That’s interesting, actually. Although a debate would be inappropriate in a witnessing thread, a test would seem to be appropriate. If I declare that love facilitates goodness, and goodness edifies, then linking me to Lang Lang is an excellent test. He loved his music. His love conveyed goodness. I was edified by his love. Other perfomances were aesthetically inferior. Massively so, quite honestly.

I recommend that you take the time to review Part I and Part II, so that by the time we move on to Part IV (which will be epistemology), you will be at full speed, and your already excellent contributions will even improve.

For those who haven’t followed, the banned user, makman, has simply copied and pasted, without attribution, a portion of an earlier post by Mr. Dibble.

Was that done in order to get past spam filters? Or was he repeating wise things?

Ok, this is random, piecemeal, even contradictory… but so is my understanding of all this. Respond to whatever you feel like, in any manner you choose.

True or False or ??: You can know if you’ve been edified, you can know if you’ve attempted to edify, but you can never know for certain that you have, in fact, edified.

True or False or ??: You cannot edify yourself. At one level or another, some other agent is always involved in your edification. That’s how edification grows.

True or False or ??:

  1. “Goodness is that which edifies, or increases aesthetical worth”. Evaluation of worth is ultimately unique to each individual. No one can know with absolute certainty what anybody else values (or how much they value something). Same same with morality.

Because of this, someone’s behavior or appearance could seem to reflect valuations or a moral code almost identical to my own, yet in actuality be the complete antithesis. Or, their behavior or appearance could be vastly different than my own, while their valuations or moral code are actually quite similar.

  1. “Goodness edifies all agents concerned, Evil tears down or devalues only the agent of evil”. (abridged quote, emphasis mine)

Given 1 & 2, it seems that there would be no way to discern whether any given encounter among beings was, on the whole, good or evil. The only thing you can determine is whether or not you were being good or evil in your encounters, based on your own aesthetic judgements and moral code of behavior.
Mr. GoodnessDoer meets Mr. EvilDoer, Part 1
Mr. EvilDoer does not value increasing anybody’s aesthetical worth besides his own. When he meets Mr. GoodnessDoer, he is rude, abrupt, mean, and basically treats Mr. GoodnessDoer like something to be scraped off his shoe. Mr. GoodnessDoer stands up for himself, but does so with with patience, kindness and respect. Mr. Evildoer leaves the encounter with an increased sense of self-worth; after all, he stuck to his values when he engaged Mr. GoodnessDoer, even when that namby-pamby idiot couldn’t grasp how worthless he was. Mr. GoodnessDoer also leaves the encounter with an increased sense of self-worth; after all, he too stuck to his values when he engaged Mr. Evildoer.

Both Mr. GoodnessDoer and Mr. EvilDoer walked away from their encounter with an increased sense of worth; of actually living out and being that much closer to what they value. Was the state of goodness achieved in this scenario?
Mr. GoodnessDoer meets Mr. EvilDoer, Part 2
Mr. GoodnessDoer meets Mr. EvilDoer. Mr. GoodnessDoer’s every intent and effort is directed toward Mr. EvilDoer’s edification (i.e., as a result of their meeting, Mr. EvilDoer will feel better about himself; Mr. EvilDoer’s worth will have increased in his own eyes). However, Mr. EvilDoer’s every intent and effort is directed toward preventing his own edification, and Mr. GoodnessDoer’s as well.

In this scenario, Mr. GoodnessDoer can’t edify Mr. EvilDoer against Mr. EvilDoer’s will, so not all agents are edified. Since Goodness edifies all agents concerned, Evil wins, Goodness loses.

But perhaps only short term. Mr. EvilDoer, by the same token, cannot prevent Mr. GoodnessDoer, against his will, from being edified by their encounter. Goodness may not have prevailed (because not all agents were edified), but that does not prevent Mr. GoodnessDoer from being edified by his encounter with Mr. EvilDoer.

In addition, because Mr. EvilDoer is hell bent (heh) on preventing any increase in his own worth, it would make sense that he might even endeavor to reduce his own worth. If he sticks with this plan consistently and successfully, he will become worthless. Given enough time and interactions the entire population of Mr. EvilDoers will inevitably have a value = zero.

Mr. GoodnessDoer and his ilk, on the other hand, will see their value, and the value of anybody they affect, increase. Eventually, the GoodnessDoers will have the highest possible aesthetic worth (whatever that is), while the EvilDoers will have no aesthetic worth whatsoever.

(I’m pretty sure there’s something wrong with this scenario, but I’m not sure what)
Question: Goodness is an aesthetic state. Literally, the most worthwhile state that you could possibly be in is the state of goodness. Is it therefore an impossible contradiction in terms for any agent to evaluate “goodness” as having little or no aesthetic value? Would that be tantamount to evaluating “water” as having little or no “moisture”?

God only knows what his motivation was.

I’ll respond to all of it. You bothered to type it out, and so the least I can do is address it.

That will be one of the key questions we discuss in the next thread, Part IV. Epsitemology is the study of the source and nature of knowledge. But suffice it at this point to say that, metaphysically speaking, there is no free moral agent who has the authority (or capability, if your prefer) of knowing for certain that a party besides yourself has been edifed, other than one Who is omnisicent. So, prematurity of the question aside, the answer is true.

I do think it is possible for a person to edify himself, metaphysically speaking. Whether he knows this, we’ll disucss later. So, false.

Absolutley true. When we discuss epistemology, the source of our knowledge is going to be Jesus Himself (of course). I will be quoting passages supporting various hypotheses, including the one you just expressed. The “moral code” part, however, is not necessary.

Yes, but with a qualification. It has nothing to do with your (or anyone else’s moral code). Moral judgments are worthless, as we established earlier. The great challenge of life is to edify as many free moral agents as you possibly can. In other words, love everyone — including people who harm you.

There have been many moral imperatives tossed about, but I have never seen one more succinct or more to the point that of Jesus. “Be perfect,” He said.

Yes, but I would call it “a” state, not “the” state.

It is metaphysicaly impossible for goodness to encounter evil and not edify it. Goodnes edifies everything it “touches” (undefined term). It cannot not edify. Please see above definitions. Jesus called it “planting seed”. If Mr. Evil encountered Mr. Goodness, then Mr. Evil was edified (assuming that either Mr. Goodness is perfectly good or else that he was in a state of goodness during the interaction.)

Yes it would. However, people cling to contradictions all the time. Witness the Bible thumper who ignores the fact that Judas hanged himself in one scenario, and flung himself off a cliff in antother. Or witness the atheist who claims that the universer arose out of nothing, when nothingness implies the lack of potential for anything to arise.

I’m confused. I get how making any sort of judgments about anybody else’s moral code is a worthless (and futile) endeavor. But my moral code is based on my aesthetic judgements of worth; how then is my aesthetic evaluation (aka, my judgment) regarding my behavior vis a vis my moral code worthless?

Earlier you stated:

… I guess I’m just not understanding the relationship between aesthetic evaluation and morality.

Mr.EvilDoer can be edified against his will?

Well, speaking just IMHO, of course…:wink:

It’s okay. The confusion is understandable. As I said before, there are so many terms that are being used in strange and wonderful new ways. Unfortunately, that is something you have to deal with every time you open a book by a philosopher. And just thank your lucky stars that I’m not Kant. Or worse, God forbid, Hegel. Even as far back as Aristotle with his phrase “the what it was to be”, which left Roman tranlsators scratching their heads and coming up with a whole new word, “essentia” (essential), to convey the phrase.

And here, I am saying that when you think of aesthetics, don’t think of beauty or taste; think instead of value or worth. And when you think of good and evil, don’t think of morality; think of aesthetics. And some of the remarks I’ve made about metaphysics have left Mr. Dibble eagerly awaiting the debate thread at the end of it all. I completely understand how even an intelligent person like yourself can become confused. I think the first time I read Nietzsche (a fellow autodidact, by the way), I had comprehended only a few of his ideas. I had to reread several times, especially passages where he defined his terms. And oh, yes! I forgot Wittgenstein. I mean damn. He spoke so simply, and yet so revolutionarily. It was absolutely essential, in understanding him, to get a grasp on what he meant by words like “grammar”, and so on.

And then, other people interested in philosophy write books about the books philosophers have written, and they spend a lot of time paraphrasing or even making up yet newer words (like “rationalism”) to convey ideas that they apparently believe the original philosopher failed to convey. Or we end up with a translation of the famous Razor (allegedly) by William of Ockham, that says, “The simplest way is usually the best.” That’s not even close to his intended expression, which was essentialy, “Do not multiply entities beyond necessity.”

While we’re discussing all this, let’s take a look at what a misapplication of a philosophy can do. Suppose we interpret Ockham’s Razor in the popular culture way, as seen, for example, in the movie Contact: 'The simplest way is usually the best." Let’s forget the “usually” for the moment (since almost everybody else does anyway). And let’s reduce the fraction 16/64. Well, obviously, the simplest way is just to cancel out the 6s, and voila! We have 1/4. But is that the correct why? Not hardly. It won’t work at all for a fraction like, 12/24. Cancelling out the 2s does not give us the correct answer.

And so, the study of philosophy begins with a completely open mind and a careful reading of the definitions. And as difficult as it may be, it is extremely important not to mix up what one philosopher means by “predicate” and what another means by “predicate”. Otherwise, you could find yourself reading Wittgenstein as though he were talking about ontology (as Kant would be), while he is actually talking about language versus the things language represents.

I’m sorry I am so long-winded about this. But you’re getting a couple of definitions mixed up, and it could be entirely my fault for not being clear enough. Even Immanuel Kant, when he had written Critique of Pure Reason, had to follow it up with another book, *Critique of Practial Reason *in order to mitigate some of the claims in his earlier book. (I’m not saying that’s the only reason he wrote it, but it’s one of them.)

Here, you are mixing up the meanings and nature of aesthetics and morality. It might not hurt for us to give these another shot right here right now, especially since you might not be the only one not quite getting it. (Again, probably my fault.)

Your moral judgments are judgments about someone’s internal rules of behavior (or even thought). For example, they believe that homosexuality is okay. And your judgment might be that they are sinful, based on bizzare Biblical interpretations, for example. On the other hand you might judge that they are not bad people, since maybe you sympathize with their cause, because you are yourself a homosexual or else homosexuality is no big deal to you.

Morality moves to ethics when it exposes itself outwardly. For example, if your guy approaches another guy with a sexual proposition, “How would you like a blow job?”. Often, societies codify a set of ethics that might prohibit (or might encourage) that sort of interaction. And if it becomes, “I’ll pay you $50 to suck your dick,” some socities have codified that into a subsect of ethics — namely, law. It is a solicitation for prostiution or some such nonsense.

Now, aesthetical judgment is very different, and has really nothing to do with your moral judgment. And if have said that, for example, one could be derived from the other, then what I meant is that one might value something that others consider to be morally wrong. Or vice-versa. For example, one might hold worthless that which others consider to be morally right. A homosexual (typically!) might see no value in a Defense of Marriage Act, whereas a Christian fundamentalist heterosexual might see great value in such an act.

This does not happen because morality and aesthetics are interchangeable terms, or because moral judgments are the same as aesthetical judgments; instead, this happens because what the person in question greatly values is morality. He has made an aesthetical judment about his morality — namely that it is of great value. Many Christians (and in fairness, people of many other religions, like Islam) make this same kind of aesthetical judgment. Judaism, for example, as practiced most strictly, greatly values ethics — rules of behavior between a man and his fellow man: the Ten Commandments, for instance. Chrisitan moral judgments, like salvation, are of no interest to a Jewish believer.

One can apply aesthetics to morality (or ethics) only that sort of sense: the sense that the moral code or ethical code has great value, and is something the person feels compelled to pursue. This may lead us to believe that aesthetics and morality are somehow automatically intertwined or almost synonymous.

But Jesus taught otherwise. I’ve already given the example of the religious leader who was praying, thanking God for not making him a sinner like the nearby tax collector, and bragging to God about how he (the religious leader) followed all the rules, like tithing and such. Meanwhile, the tax collector felt too unworthy even to look up, and prayed only that God would forgive him for taking money from the poor in order to give it to Caesar. Jesus made a point immediately upon telling this story. It was the tax collector, and not the religious leader, who had pleased God with his prayer. That’s because God, Jesus teaches, values attributes like humility and remorse for sin. The fact that the religious leader meticulously followed the moral code was of no significance to God.

Strange sounding, I know. But grasping an understanding of this difference is absolutely critical in grasping my witness. Feel free to continue asking all the questions you want. At some point, it will dawn on you, “Oh, yeah. I get it. When Lib talks about aesthetical judgments, they have nothing to do with moral judgments except by coincidence, when someone aesthetically values morality.”

I’'m hoping the above will help.

Yes. Certainly. Consider, for example, my rather violent conversion. Well, not violent, but certainly sudden and explosive. The very last thing I wanted to do was become a Christian, and then in the middle of translating John, lo and behold, I looked up and the whole world was new to me. Everything I had known before was suddenly and immediately changed. And I don’t mean things like how to ride a bicycle or who my mother was, I mean things like the aesthetic value of this ragtag group of hippies in our minivan and for that matter the aesthetic value of my mother.

Mr. EvilDoer might be standing on a bridge preparing to jump, but you save him against his will. He might be holding a hostage and threatening to shoot her, but you explain how much more valuable she will be to him alive. (That last example was a bit weak, but I’ve been typing for an hour.) Suffice it to say that the only entity that even has an aesthetical will is love. Again, that is clearly spelled out above, but I know how hard it is to read every post and catch every word. Mr. EvilDoer has free moral will, but no aesthetical will at all. What he treasures, he treasures because treasuring that particular thing is a part of his nature. This is going to be important when we discuss freewill shortly (here in the metaphysics thread.) It will be a discussion of existentialism vesus essentialism, when we’re ready to move on.

And finally, while we’re at it, let’s examine Mr. EvilDoer and Mr. GoodnessDoer just a bit closer. Few people, if any, have ever been completely evil or completely good (with the latter having one exception, of course). It is simply the case that Mr. EvilDoer has mostly evil states, meaning states that are void of goodness, and therefore are aesthetically the equivalent of nothingness. But he will almost certainly have some good states. (I’m sure you’ve heard a thousand times the comments on the news by neighbors, “He was such a good guy. Quiet. Kept mostly to himself.” etc.) And Mr. GoodnessDoer will almost certainly have some evil states. I, for example, have always strived to value greatly my fellow posters, but (not to blame my brain imbalances that psychiactric medicine is helping now to treat) I could come across as the most mean and vicious person who ever lived.

Examine this post carefully, and if necessary review the definitions without any preconceived notions of how the terms are defined, and you will “get it”. I know that you’re smart enough. The only question is whether I can explain it well enough.

You don’t know why he did it, but you ban him anyway?

No, sorry. You have me confused with someone else.

Thanks for the depth of that last post, Lib… I know it must be frustrating for you to keep throwing spaghetti at my wall, over and over, but I truly am trying to get it to stick.

- Does your use of the phrase “moral judgment” only refer to judgments about someone else’s internal rules of behavior or thought, or does it also refer to someone’s judgement of* their own* internal rules of behavior or thought? If it includes the latter, what is that judgment based on? The ethical codes of the culture the person has identified with? Alignment (or un-alignment) with what they hold to be aesthetically valuable?

- Where do personal rules of behavior, a moral code, come from if not by evaluating worth? I mean, whether the rules are handed down by a conscience, God, or the IPU, some rules get the thumbs up and are adopted into one’s moral code, some get the thumbs down and are rejected. Or does a person have no ability to accept or reject their moral code? If that’s the case, how are they considered to have free moral will? How is having “part-of-their-nature” moral codes any different than having “part-of-their-nature” aesthetic values?

If Mr. GenericDoer has free moral will, it means he can do…what? What am I not getting here?

- Also, I’m having trouble reconciling these two quotes (granted, they’re out of context, but not enough to change their intended meaning… I think):

Again. No problem. I have plenty of Tranxene. (Little joke there). But it has been said that Socrates believed the best way to learn is to teach. And that’s really why I made this initially a witnessing thread. I hoped you people would help me sharpen my ideas, and you have!

If if recall correctly, I said early on that my view on aesthetics is, as far as I know, completely new. Now, that is not to say that some philosopher whom I haven’t read has not already discovered aesthetics to be a matter of value, rather than beauty. But certainly, traditionally, aesthetics has been a matter of *appreciating *something — either something enticing, or beautiful, or in some manner attractive. As opposed to actually evaluating something. In other words, aesthetics has traditionally been about what the Mona Lisa does for me; but I am saying it is a matter of evaluating what the Mona Lisa is worth.

I have not seen, nor have I ever heard, of aesthetics being used to mean judgment of worth (or value). So if I’ve stepped on someone’s toe here, I apologize (wherever you are out there). But my intention is not merely to present my philosophy, but to present how Jesus is Himself concerned, not with the morality of people but with their aesthetics. My intention is to show that that is what He taught: that moral judgments are worthless, whereas what we should be doing is not making rules but making goodness, which we do through love.

And so I’m more than happy to take all the time that is necessary so that everyone (believe me, you aren’t the only one who gets confused by my writing) understands what it is I’m saying (and not saying too, really).

Yeah, well see, that’s the thing, isn’t it. It seems that the vast majority of your curiosity is epistemic in nature. You want to know (pun) how people know things. Because, you see, it really isn’t possible to judge your own morality if it is the case that you don’t know what it is. Now, recall that the reason we said we cannot judge the morality of others is that we are not omniscient. To know their morality would necessitate knowing their whole lives, because formulation of rules and that sort of thing evolves over time with experience.

A person is free to change a rule. Maybe there’s a guy who thought gambling was “sinful” (in the old, ordinary sense) but then tried it himself on account of whatever circumstance (the possibilities are nearly infinite) and decided it’s not “sinful” after all. Or a person might never have thought in his whole life about the topic of environmentalism, when suddenly or eventually something — some trigger — makes environmentalism a moral issue for them; i.e., they add it or something about it to their moral code. Or the big one, since we’re here: they might change their minds about abortion one way or the other, and rewrite that part of their moral code

Therefore, it is only by omniscience or else by becoming them (a metaphysical impossibility) that we would be qualified to judge whether their moral standards are “objectively correct”. I mean, we don’t even know whether there IS an objective standard. And if there is one, I can’t know what it is. You can’t know it. MrDibble can’t know it. Because for each of us, the standards we hold are subjective only. Therefore, if we are to judge a moral standard, then it must be only our own, and our judgment even of it must be subjective (as we’ve established that, due to lack of perfect knowledge, we cannot be objective).

And so, we aren’t even capable of judging our own morality, even if we judge it by an objective standard. Jesus, of course, is the objective standard to Christians. And if this were a series of threads about the morality of Jesus, I might mention his saying that, “You will judge yourselves by the words I speak”. But I don’t believe that he means a moral judgment, even there. (!) (Christian fundamentalists might condemn me to Hell for such heresy.)

Well, I think they come from all sorts of different places. Some of them might well be “evaluations” of a sort. Some of them might come from brainwashing — such as by a preacher slash cult figure. Some of them might come from rules our parents laid out (or opposites of those, in many cases) Some of them might come from God Himself, by divine revelation. But I think most of them come from just plain old life experiences. We truly honestly do not understand why stealing is morally wrong until we reach for our wallet in a crowd and it’s not there. Or until Aunt June’s prized Opal and Diamond Pendant has disappeared right after young Johnny has hosted a sleepover for a few friends. Or whatever.

I really wish that, if I could get only one point across to you, it would be that morality is irrelevant. Simply that.

It means that he is free to make moral decisions. Without jumping too far into the next thread, I’ll just say that Jesus teaches that on one level, man is like God — born of spirit, and a person who either values goodness or holds it to be worthless or something in between. What I am establishing (or attempting to establish) in this series is that the decision on how valuable goodness is, is an aesthetic, and not a moral decision. A person might value goodness analogously to the way someone might value a priceless art object or collectible. And the pursuit of it might be strong-willed. Jesus tells the story of a man who found a hidden great pearl on a piece of land. He then bought the land, but only so that he could have the pearl. It was not the land that he valued at all, but the pearl. The land was valuable only as a means to take possession of the pearl.

Originally Posted by Liberal
“And so, in summary, my aesthetics theory holds that the evaluation of value or worthlessness or disinterest is made by the will.”


“Suffice it to say that the only entity that even has an aesthetical will is love. Again, that is clearly spelled out above, but I know how hard it is to read every post and catch every word. Mr. EvilDoer has free moral will, but no aesthetical will at all. What he treasures, he treasures because treasuring that particular thing is a part of his nature.”It tells you that all authoritative (meaning objectively correct) evaluations of value or worthlessness are made by love. Only love can evaluate the true worth or value of a person qua a conveyor of goodness.

Again, getting ahead just a bit (but if it helps you catch up, that’s okay), I will be introducing a new word in the next thread, called “God”. It will be exactly synonymous with some other word.

I think I’m ready to continue with Part III (or move on to Part IV). I’m pretty sure my remaining questions would be best addressed in Part IV, and there’s enough material posted here for me to flip back to for reference as we go on.

Well, all righty then. It’s time for me to witness about a chicken and egg controversy. Which precedes which: existence or essence? I’m going to give my answer, but first, let me define my terms.

Existence is a state of being, and of course the nature of existence is the concern of ontology. Now, the problem with that definition is that it sucks. It’s a tautology. An unmarried man is a bachelor. No information is conveyed about existence by calling it a “state of being”. You might as well say existence is existence.

And so, I’m going to give existence a new definition. (Suprise!) Existence is the emergence of that which is essential. This emergence may manifest physically or otherwise; at this point, that is not important. What is important is that in order to emerge, a thing must first have an essence. It must be “the what it was to be” that Aristotle spoke of. If it is not essential (i.e., has no essence), then it cannot emerge into existence.

Now I need to define essence. Essence is what a thing would be even if it didn’t exist. And so, we can speak of non-existent things like unicorns, for example. We can describe them even though they are only imaginary. Singularities are another, but different kind of example. We’re pretty sure they exist (as in super massive black holes), but we can only talk around them, and not about them per se. In other words, the math breaks down at the point of a singularity, and the mathematical solution set is “undefined”. Not zero. Not the empty set. But simply undefined.

This one might be the hardest to grasp because existentialism has become such a part of the mindset since Sartre (and others, like Kierkegaard, but especially Sartre) spread the disease (or philosophy if you prefer) by declaring, “L’existence précède l’essence”, or “Existence precedes essence.” That might not sound like much, but it turned the world on its ear. It was a break from millennia of philosophical thought. (There were primitive ideas of existentialism as early as the 12th century, but it was Sartre who pulled it all together.)

Existentialism implies that a thing may (in fact, MUST) exist before its essence is established. In other words, “the what it was to be” (or as Aristotle put it in Greek, “to ti ên einai”) is not relevant. Some rather bizarre inferences have been drawn from existentialism by philosophers like Simone de Beauvoir, who stated that a woman is not born a woman, but becomes one.

It was, in fact, an Islamic philosopher, Sadr al-Din Muhammad Shirazi, who originated the idea that “The existent being that has an essence must then be caused and existence that is pure existence … is therefore a Necessary Being.” Sartre infered from this claim (and others) that there is no essential nature to anything. It is a misinterpretation of Shirazi, but it’s a cat that is long out of the bag. No longer can we say that man is essentially rational (or good, or evil, or anything else, really). No longer can we say that a unicorn is essentially a horse with a horn on its forehead. We can say only that man exists and unicorns do not.

Until Sartre, the vast body of philosophical thought was the very reverse: that is, that essence precedes existence. That a woman is born a woman. That man has essential attributes. That a unicorn is essentially as described above.

Most of all, existentialism makes “God” (or Shirazi’s “Necessary Being” irrelevant), and is in fact what led The New York Times to use its famous “God is dead” headline. I haven’t defined God yet (and I won’t until Part IV), but suffice it to say that existentialism claims that since there is nothing about man that is essential at all, then it must be the case that he has no essential need for a deity.

Now (blessedly, I’m sure) that’s all I’m going to talk about Sartre and existentialism. I reject it. It think, frankly, that it’s silly. And I think it is a philosophical fad that will fade away as man begins to lose interest in the futility of space travel and begins to look inward. (And yes, that’s a long time away.)

I bear witness that essence precedes existence. I say that a thing cannot exist until first there is something about it that indiviudates it from other things. That, therefore, is why I define existence as the emergence of something essential. Wheher you agree or disagree is unimportant at this point. All that is important is that you understand what I mean. After discussing this nuance until it is understood, we can then move on to free will, and then finally to epistemology in Part IV.

Gosh, I guess that was much less controversial than I had feared. Since it seems that we will all accept, for the sake of argument, that essence precedes existence, then we need to discuss whether essence necessitates existence, and clearly it does not. We are familiar with what a leprechaun essentially is, or Big Foot, or even aliens who capture people and put things up their butts. But we are aware that these things do not exist.

Therefore, although essence precedes existence, essence does not *compel *existence.

And now we are right inside the meat and potatoes of metaphysics: the study of the nature of reality. What is required for something to be real? We could discuss the most obvious thing first, I guess. That is, something is real if I can touch it. Or smell it. Or see it. Or in some way detect it through my senses.

It occurs to me that at least two things are wrong with that approach to gauging reality. (1) the thing being touched, seen, or otherwise sensed is in a constant state of change; and (2) the observer is himself a part of the observation, which makes the observation subjective.

Now, argument against number (1) are untenable. If you do touch something, then what you have touched is not the same even a moment later. If it is organic, is has either grown or lost cells; if it is moving, it is not where it was; if it is hovering agaisnt gravity, then it has less fuel (or energy) in the next immediate moment. You cannot touch anything other than to take a snapshot of it. And that isn’t at all the essence of the thing. Snapshots can be nice and they serve their purposes, but they do not reveal the nature of reality

Arguments against number two might be more successful if it is held that an aggregate of subjective views forms an objective view. And careful readers will recall the controversy that stirred up in the discussion of ethics. Why, then, in a discussion of metaphysics must the rules suddenly change? It seems to me that an aggregate of subjective opinions is metasubjective, rather than objective. Since you are yourself, as Arthur Eddington observed, just a part of the experiment, then why, other than some metaphysical majority rule weirdness ought replication to be the be-all and end-all of truth? “There is no essential distinction between scientific measures and the measures of the senses. In either case our acquaintance with the external world comes to us through material channels; the observer’s body may be regarded as part of his laboratory equipment.” Arthur Eddington

In other words, all you are measuring when you make observations are your own senses. Therefore, reality cannot be found by observing, sensing, or measuring.

To be real, a thing must qualify in three ways: (1) it must be eternal; (2) it must be essential; and (3) it must be necessary. It must be eternal so that it is the thing it always has been and always will be. It must be essential in order to emerge into existence. (See definition of existence in above post.) And it must be necessary because only necessity assures actuality.

So there you have it. That is the nature of reality as I see it. Feel free to discuss, ask questions, or seek clarification.

err, no, not uncontroversial. I’ve just been busy.

Anyway, I think you know what I’m going to say. I don’t agree.
Firstly, I don’t agree that existence is tautological. When we say something “exists”, we are saying something about it - that it occurs in this Universe, and is bound by space-time. That’s not a tautology.
Second, I find your definition of essence somewhat…circular, maybe? By using existence in your definition, when you suppose it so be tautological, you’re basing essence on that same tautology. That’s not right.

Anyway, I don’t believe unicorns have essence. The *idea *of unicorns is essential, yes, but not unicorns in themselves. They are imaginary, and as such, have no real properties.

I also don’t subscribe to the idea that essence precedes existence, as you know. But unlike Sartre, I believe that essence and existence arise simultaneously. As soon as a thing exists, it has essence. But not before.

I also disagree that a thing must be eternal to be real. But then, I think you’ve skipped over defining real, so if this is just axiomatic to you, that’s OK.

Of course, even though I disagree, I’m still willing to go along. Essence precedes existence, I can deal with that.