I am genuinely puzzled as to how a President who is not constrained by the law is different from a dictator. What’s the difference, in real terms?
If you check out my earlier citation (derived from Brainglutton’s original citation to Wikipedia), you’ll see that Clinton, Bush, and numerous other Presidents have apparently relied on an understanding akin to the unitary executive theory. Specifically, the two articles I linked discuss instances in which Presidents between 1889 and 2001 applied the theories underlying the unitary executive theory.
Bush isn’t the first to use the theory, and he won’t be the last. One of its cheif proponents was FDR, although the articles I linked earlier trace it back at least as far as Benjamin Harrison. Once again quoting from the abstract of the law review article The Unitary Executive During the Third Half-Century, 1889-1945 (emphasis added):
And quoting from the abstract of the law review article The Unitary Executive in the Modern Era, 1945-2004 (emphasis added):
Yes, the President is free to interpret the Constitution as he or she believes, within the bounds of the Constitution (obviously, the doctrine of judicial review sets a limit on the President’s authority to interpret the Constitution, since the judiciary is the final arbiter of the Constitution). The President is an equal branch of the government, and therefore free to act within the bounds of what he or she feels the Constitution requires (at least until the matter is determined by the courts).
The President is constrained by the law. The unitary executive theory does not say otherwise.
As I understand it, in the case of torture, the Prez has written a note saying, “I’m not gonna follow this law cause it bugs me as Commander in Chief, and neither are any of my CinC minions.” (or words to that effect). And he did it under the unitary exec theory. This seems to be EXACTLY a case of the President not being constrained by that particular law.
That’s not my understanding. Can you be any more definitive with regard to the note? Maybe a cite to the note or a news article about it?
Interesting . . . Perhaps you could post this information in the other thread?
Here’s the signing statement and this is the relevant section on torture:
I’d be interested in hearing one of our resident lawyers tell us what this means-- it’s not obvious to the untrained reader (like myself).
At first glance, without looking up all the statutes and cases to which it refers, I would say it means the Administration takes the position that the McCain amendment does not give “enemy combatant” detainees any right of access to the courts, whether to have their status reviewed or to sue the government for torturing them.
Not to put words into BrainGlutton’s mouth, but I think he meant that the use of signing statements by the judiciary has not been approved by the Supreme Court. As I pointed out in this thread. Bush’s use of the signing statement as legsilative history is especially disingenous because the judges (Scalia and Thomas) that he says represent his judicial philosophy eschew legislative history as an indicator of legislative intent.
Alito, OTOH – for all that he has been nicknamed “Scalito,” an intellectual clone of Scalia – might well have a very different view of “legislative history.” Considering that it was he who first started pushing the idea of the presidential “signing statement” as an element of it, back when he worked for the Reagan Administration.
Well, now that you mention it, no, no it didn’t.
Erek
Come on! When you consider where he started, ten years as emperor was a pretty good run!
Huh? Scalia is noted for his unwillingness to look at “legislative history”. My guess is the nickname of “Scalito” was given him by people who don’t know what they’re talking about.
BTW, did you see the article about this in last week’s NYT magazine? (Not yesterday, but a week ago yesterday). Do a little searching on the web if you haven’t. I think you’ll find it very interesting.
That was my point.
Well, Alito has that nickname based on a reputation for agreeing with Scalia about most things. It need not be all-inclusive to be appropriate.
Update: Since I posted the OP, the Wikipedia article on “Unitary Executive Theory” (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Unitary_executive), originally just 4-5 paragraphs, has grown to several times that length and now is divided into multiple subsections with several “see also” links at the end and many more cross-referential links embedded in the test. Topical interest makes the treatment grow.
I am completely against any notion of a “unitary executive”. Nobody is above the law, inclujding the President. It is not his place to make law, that belongs to Congress. It is not his place to decide what laws are valid or constitutional or interpret them, that belongs to the Supreme Court. His job is to execute, enforce, and act on the law. The powers of the President were deliberately and purposely limited in the Constitution.