The latter. They are both אחד ('echad.).
Yes, but let us not pretend. I know very well that I have a reputation for drama and renegade interpretations. I’ve heard all the jokes about my meds and whatnot. But I’ve taken my Tranxene, and I react like any other human being to what I perceive as disrespect or dismissal or whatever. What I believed was that, unless someone were knowledgable otherwise, he ought to concede that at least the word MIGHT — stressing might — have the same meaning in both cases. But that was not to be. There were merely insistences that I was silly and lacking in common sense. How would YOU react if someone responded to your argument by dismissing it altogether and saying you lacked common sense? Speaking for myself, I pretty much ignore what I perceive as a disrespectful tone, at least as much as I can these days.
Because for what, the fourth time? I trust DSeid. He does not insult me. He does not approach me with belligerence. He doesn’t parse my posts into a dozen phrases and dismiss them as silly or non-sequiturs.
(Incidentally, if you will permit me, it is a pet peeve of mine, and I realize it is not binding on you in any way, but the word is “sequitur”, not “sequitor”. I mean no disrespect in bringing that up. It’s just a bit jarring to see it consistently spelled that way.)
No, that’s not right. I asked whether Judaism held that a man and wife are literally one flesh. It was not an unreasonable question. Religions are full of strange and mysterious things, like the notion of drinking the blood and eating the body of Christ. When I felt it was ignored, I raised the question again. When it was finally addressed, I gave the verses in parallel, asking why they could not both be metaphors. I was then boohooed, shooed, scatted, and saw women running from the room and screaming as they pulled out their hair. And then, DSeid posted. Read his post. Read it from my point of you, and you’ll see why I accepted it.
Certainly, it is a simple modus ponens that if both usages of the word had been metaphors, then “one (God)” could have been open to interpretation because, well, that’s what metaphors are: figures of speech that are open to interpretation.
It sounds rather amazing to me that it sounded like all that. It began, as I said, as a simple question: why is the same word ('echad) a metaphor in one instance and literal in another. It was a why question. No one answered the why. Except for DSeid. His “why” was his assurance that he could show it to be a fact that it was a metaphor in one instance and literal in another. Again, he did not badger, razz, or bristle. He just simply asked me to trust him. Which was easy to do for reasons I’ve given repeatedly.
I don’t even understand that question. Who begins an argument that he believes in the first place is invalid? Why would he? I thought my argument was valid for the same reason you thought yours was: I thought I was right.
I don’t know. They’re kind of asking me the same question over in the Aesthetical Jesus threads. Why do I think differently from scholars throughout the ages on a number of philosophical topics? And I don’t know. I guess it’s just the nature of philosophy.
“All are lunatics, but he who can analyze his delusion is called a philosopher.” Ambrose Bierce