Surely one can admire the charitable philanthropy of an organization, while still opining that if they’re willing to pay over $2 million to own a letter from some politicians, they must have more money than good sense.
You seem to be trying to imply that anybody who mocks such a purchase by a charitable institution must be denigrating the noble causes to which the institution contributes, and by extension must hate the beneficiaries of those contributions. That’s quite a stretch.
But does the payment qualify as a charitable donation by the first-party payor if the funds must transfer through a third party who receives them in payment for goods or services and then makes the actual donation to the charitable recipient? Tax lawyer needed here, stat!