Thanks. That’s another very clean way of explaining about 99.999% of the situation. I like it overall.
There are two differences between, e.g., a diseased limb and a fetus.
The first:
The diseased limb will always be either a) a biologically dependent component of the woman, or b) dead. A fetus has, eventually, a third outcome: biologically independent life as a separate organism.
Does that difference rise to the level that it matters? I’m not prepared to argue either way. I’m not big on fetus’s “rights” in general, but I think it’s evident the difference I point out is a real difference. IOW, your analogy is good, but it isn’t perfect; there are still details to be parsed out. Perhaps de minimis details, perhaps devilish details.
The second:
In the analogy of the diseased limb, the parents don’t have a right to vote yeah/nay on removing it despite their genetic connection. They also are not facing a requirement to support the limb for the next 20 years in one of the two possible outcomes. Their interest is pretty consequence-free regardless of the woman’s choice. So it makes sense she’s free to ignore their preferences since neither of her choices imposes a meaningfully different burden on the parents.
In the case of a fetus I can (almost) accept the idea that the father’s genetic interest in the fetus is no greater than the parents’ in the limb. But then there’s the financial and time-and-effort interest applied by modern law. As in my earlier post, if the father is empowered by law to say “I vote abortion; if the mother chooses otherwise, as is totally her right, she accepts that my parental rights & responsibilities end in perpetuity when she makes that decision.”, then the woman’s decision doesn’t amount to an unwanted uncompensated burden being placed unilaterally on him over his objections. If he lacks the right to renounce, then there’s a problem.
Here's another completely unrelated way to look at the father's & mother's biologically imposed differing rights, responsibilities, and interests. Which argues against what I just said.
Try this on for size.
As a biological matter the mother is stuck dealing with the pregnancy or its termination. That’s the sex, the conception, the early pregnancy, the abortion or not, the late pregnancy or not, and the birth or not. In exchange for that large burden, she gets to choose the no-kid = abortion route up until fairly late in the pregnancy, perhaps even unto the day before birth. Said another way, the woman gets (up to) 9 months of “do-over” on the fact of her conception.
As a biological matter the father has a much lighter burden. As such his last opportunity for a do-over isn’t really a do-over at all. His last say in the matter is just before conception occurs. After that he’s along for the ride.
He didn’t earn the right to have a vote in the subsequent path of the pregnancy because he isn’t bearing the burden of being pregnant.
The two gendered situations are not equivalent. They are not equal. But they do each have some balance of burden vs benefit. The side bearing the greater burden receives a greater benefit; the net balance for each isn’t hugely unequal. Or at least the socially-imposed burden/benefit ratio doesn’t make the biologically-imposed burden/benefit worse than it inherently must be.
There may not be equality, but there is rough and ready equity. Which may be the best we can ask for given that biology wasn’t designed by humans to support human moral / ethical / practical preferences. It’s just the way it is and we have to deal with it as it is.
Does that make sense to anyone? I just made it up, although I have no doubt lots of other folks have advanced the same arguments. I admit I’m not well-read on the overall ethical / practical history of thought on abortion.