You’re just repeating your earlier point at much greater length. You believe the torture used in this instance was not effective. OK. But you seem to agree that if torture would be effective that it might be morally justified. So that your position rests on your assertion that this particular torture program was not effective.
However, other people here disagree with you. They say that even if it were effective it would never be justified, and that therefore all your assertions about the ineffectiveness of this torture are not germane to the conclusion that it was evil. I’m having a discussion with some of those people.
No, you’re misstating my point, and that’s the wrong scenario.
The scenario is: you receive extremely credible information that a gathering of al-Qaeda/ISIS people are in such-and-such location, and/or that such-and-such location is a military installation, so you bomb them. No civilians are inadvertently killed. However, your targets are deliberately killed. You’ve decided that the deliberate killing of these people is justified because of the even greater harm that might come about if they were not killed. There’s also a non-zero chance that your information is wrong, and these people are not terrorists or enemy soldiers, and it’s not a military installation. And even if they are, there’s a non-zero chance that your attack will not lessen the death of any innocent people. And there’s also a non-zero chance that you could have accomplished the same end by other means. But yet, everyone seems to accept that this is justified.
Question is: how is this morally different than if you seized and tortured these very same people, based on the exact same information, and with the same likelihood of accomplishing the exact same end?