I’ll first off agree with Collounsbury on the likely causes of modern European dominance.
Exion: I understand your points, but one should be careful not to overgeneralize.
In relation to China - 1.) T’ang China ( 7th to 10th centuries ) and some of their predecessors were actively expansionist. The T’ang conquered a large chunk of Central Asia where they eventually came into conflict with the Arabs.
2.) Ming China was as well in it’s early period ( and we won’t go into “foreign” dynaties like Yuan, Chin and Ch’ing(Manchu), who were also very aggressive ).
3.) Sung China ( especially the Southern Sung ) was without a doubt the pre-eminent mercantile and naval power of their day.
4.) Modern Chinese isolationism has it’s roots in the disastrous experiences stemming from the Mongol conquests ( not discounting pre-existing differences in Chinese vs. Western Philosophy and world view, but that didn’t stop them earlier ) and the enormous internal wealth of Ming and Manchu China that made trade virtually irrelevant.
5.) I would disagree somewhat with the idea that China isn’t efficiently utilizing their land. They do maintain population densities on a par with the Netherlands across a vastly larger space, after all. And much of China, particularly in the West, isn’t of use for much outside of pastoralism.
6.) China is a HUGE pond
. Always has been. It’s influence has almost always been wider than Rome’s at its height.
On Germany - The statement on the internal disunity of Germany is again overgeneralizing a bit. The early Holy Roman Empire was certainly Western Europe’s strongest state. And remember they colonized and conquered ( in a quite organized fashion ) most of what is today East Germany, from various Slavic tribes. Germany disintegrated slowly over time. With the extinction of dynasties, the Investiture Contest, the lack of universal primogeniture, and finally the religious wars of the 16th and 17th centuries, all playing a part.
On the Mongols - Expansion of the Mongol State as a unified whole continued through the reign of Ghenghis Khan’s grandson Mangku. The conquest of Russia and Persia came well after Ghenghis’ death. The expansion ( or in some cases maintainence ) of the Mongol States as separate appanages continued for another 75 years or so after that. The Mongols didn’t start to contract until almost a century and a half after his death.
On the Islamic Powers - The Arabs didn’t conquer Europe mainly because they ran out of steam as distance conspired against them. Rome had the same problems ( North Britain, for example ). The Ottomans were vastly better organized as a state than any contemporary European power pre-mid 17th century. And they ( as well as every other major “Oriental” powers of any lasting significance ) all had very intricate and, for their time, efficient systems of managers to run their empire. Rome’s use of managers was not even remotely unique.
On Rome - Again oversimplifications. The Romans could be quite xenophobic. Remember Roman citizenship was not granted to ALL citizens of the State until 212 C.E. under Caracalla, over 200 years AFTER the demise of the Republic. And except in the earliest periods I wouldn’t really agree that the individual was subordinated to the State. Otherwise you would never have had the rise of the Empire.
I tend to agree with Akatsukami ( I think ) that ancient Greek philosophy ( partially transmitted through Rome ) is of greater significance to our modern political system.
You make some good points about the heritage of the Roman Republic. I don’t dismiss it’s importance. But I don’t agree we can lay the causes of Modern European dominance at it’s feet. At best it is one ( smallish ) factor among many more important ones. And frankly your assertion that Western powers wouldn’t have “lasted” as long without the idea of the individual subordinated to the State confuses me. What Western powers? When? And why do you think this is the case?
And at the risk of sounding like a yes-man (
) I also will agree with Collounsbury, Domina, and others, that saying that the idea that A.) Europeans always had a desire to impose their will on others, and B.) That Non-Europeans did not, is simply false. I’ve seen no evidence of such a stark dichotomy in any of my readings.
Enough for now, I have to head off to work. Sorry about the rambliness of my post
.