This "We are all sinners" thing....

Of course, but remember, I was addressing the claim that God consistently wiped out everyone who refused to worship him. As we have seen, that simply isn’t so.

Not the same thing. First of all, as the story itself shows, this was a test of Abraham’s faith. Second, this (attempted) sacrifice was an exceptional event directly commanded by God. In contrast, the Canaanite practice of child sacrifice was a regular custom, conducted against Yahweh’s wishes.

It’s ridiculous to claim that God must honor all child sacrifice, simply because he commanded it in that specific circumstance. That would be like saying that speeding is sometimes justified (e.g. in medical emergencies), violating the speed limit should be tolerated in all circumstances.

Which still proves my point – namely, that Yahweh did not go around killing everyone who refused to worship him. Remember, THAT is the specific issue under discussion here. Genesis says that the world was unspeakably corrupt at the time, and so those people were not killed merely because they did not worship Yahweh.

It certainly is. After all, to automatically forgive such traffic offenses would make a travesty out of the justice system.

Besides, you’re straying from the issue at hand. The question isn’t whether God should absolve the sinner of his offenses. (Sometimes he should, but not always.) The question is whether the person IS a sinner. In the example which I cited, the defendant IS a traffic violator, despite all protestations that he has the (ahem) potential to do good.

Which, as I said, is irrelevant to the topic at hand – namely, whether the defendant is a traffic violator (or whether WE are sinners).

Which, ONCE AGAIN, has nothing to do with the topic at hand.

Look, if you want to start at thread about how people should atone for their sins, or how they should behave after receiving forgiveness, then feel free to do so. Those are not the topics under discussion here. The question is whether all people are sinners. They are, and all protestions about their potential for doing good are simply irrelevant.

I think we’re going to have to let this drop, Apos. It appears that a difference in belief is going to cause us to simply reiterate our previous arguments. I’ll let it suffice that I weighed in with my opinions on the thread’s OP.

I’m curious as to what your understanding of morality derives from, but I’ll leave that for another thread on that subject in general.

It’s better that he’s wildly inconsitent?

Not surprising: this is what seems to happen almost immediately whenever anyone is called to explain this “Free Will” thing. The problem with backing out is that it is the CORE of the given excuse. It isn’t just some side issue or hijack. And it’s simply not fair to say that we are re-iterating our positions: you’ve yet to even explain the central concept of your reasoning. I don’t even know what your real position is.

I seem to remember that Redemption requires you to repent as well as " accepting the Lord". If you carry on with lying, cheating, abusing your spouse, exploiting your workers, molesting your altarboys, whatever, even AFTER saying “Lord Jesus I Have Faith In You” (or whatever the Magic Words are in your religion) and all the while repeating it, you have not repented and are in deep, deep trouble.

Riiiight, because it’s an impossible mystery to explain, you’ve unraveled the secret. Forget that theologians have been arguing for millennia about this, or that dozens of books have been written on the subject. We’ll pretend, for the moment that you’re not asking me to explain the CORE as you put it, of a metaphysical theory that is central to the belief structure of a two thousand year old religion that spans the globe, and has thousands of possible interpretations based upon mere theories. We’ll forget that these theories are based on a book written in Greek and Hebrew that spans more than two thousand pages in and of itself, and must be used for appropriate source documentation. We’ll forget that you ignored my request to take this to email where a more lengthy set of replies might possibly have allayed your curiosity. We’ll forget that you failed to clarify whether you are asking for my personal theory, a general explanation, or The Truth, which I am unable to personally give.

In many ways, Apos, you remind me of the Buddhist monk who asked the hotdog vendor to “Make him one with everything”, except you’re actually serious. We can also forget that you refused my offer to simply drop this, and accept a gentleman’s draw. No, you chose that as your opportunity to comment on the fact that it was unfair for me to simply drop this because you failed to understand the central part of my reasoning. As it stands, I have no control over your ability to understand a simple or complex problem, to reason, nor can I help you develop the capacity for logic.

So, I’ll explain my reasoning, in a truncated form:

To begin with, you must understand the concept of God, as I see and interpret the Biblical description of Him. God is omnipotent, omnipresent, and omniscient. He is all powerful, everywhere, and knows everything. He is the creator of the universe, and the result of that creation includes the code of morals standards.

Those moral standards are universal laws, by the nature of their creation, in much the same way as time and space are universal. As to the speculation that an arbitrarily defined moral is drained of meaning, I would disagree.

I disagree on the first count, because obviously a moral which simply is, is as arbitrary as a created moral for the purposes of this discussion, since we have accepted that all things that are, are derived from the creation of God. I disagree on the second count that these definitions must be arbitrary, on the basis that they are mutable or conceptually defined. Personally, I see the moral strictures as simply being the nature of God, as He fits into the universe. Many have commented on the seeming disparities between the practices of God Himself and the moral structure which He has designed for humanity. There are other obvious designs to this, but we will use the example again of time.

The God at the time of judgment is the same God at the creation time, not a God a number of years older and wiser. God would not see time as passing in the manner that we do, but rather as a static existence of the universe as a whole, from beginning to end. So while there is a past or future for those of us experiencing the flow of time, there is none for God, who sees the time of the universe laid before Him simultaneously.

Similarly, with moral structures of His creation, God is not bound to them, nor does their purpose, as you asserted, need to be the judgment of the values of human actions. There are many and varied theories as to the existence and reasoning behind morals, from societal agreement to logical safety of the species as a whole. But, for the purposes of these morals, we can assume that what is wrong is Wrong and what is right is Right regardless of who, or where you are, the society you grew up in, or the circumstances of your life.

The assumption of right and wrong as a standard for judging the merits of an individual is laid out in the Bible fairly clearly, as a concept reserved for God. We are not given to judge sins based even on the standards set forth by God, He is. So twice we have the assertion that the roles for morality differ between humans and God.

A quick reality check will show this to be an obvious necessity, and not an unjust overruling by a despotic tyrant. If there is to be a right and wrong clearly and solidly in place, there must therefore be a consequence for these actions, and an arbiter of the judgment. This also is reserved for God.

This is neither unjust, nor unfair. Our ability to define such terms, our universe and our existence is the gift of God, and we are His property. He created us for His purpose, and we are in existence solely for that. Because we have no identity separate from this, nor could we exist apart from it, it is not slavery.

The concept of these things all plays into the concept of free will. What you had previously described as free will is not, and is in fact anathema to the concept of free will. What you are proposing as free will, in which someone can only make the right choices, is actually simply a selection of the acceptable parameters.

This is obviously unacceptable in a universe which includes a concept of Wrong. It cannot be considered a literal ‘free will’ if a given person can select only from a set number of the available options. In order for a person to truly have free will, they must be able to select from the full range of options, which in this case we have determined to include Wrong.

Many times a person would ask me what the purpose of such a system might be, and I always reply, “What would the purpose of such a system be if it were not so?”

In your example, Why not simply make it so everyone chooses only the Right Thing? This is analogous to asking why students must fail a class, why they can’t simply be given tests with only right answers. The answer to that question is not because they would not learn anything by being given such a test, even knowing that the test would be so, but that it defeats the purpose of the test itself. Why even have such a test?

So, in a system in which an individual can select only Right, there is simply no Wrong. Defined or not, the concept of Wrong would be without purpose and need not be created at all.

This often calls up the second question, Why must there be wrong? Once again, many theories for the existence of Wrong in the universe have been presented. Some believe that in a discussion of a concept of this size, the choice truly is arbitrary, simply a matter of selection. Others believe that this is a classroom for learning the right and wrong of existence, and still others believe that this is a challenge of will. Personally, I subscribe to the belief that there is a genuine caring of the part of the deity to draw forth the acceptable from among the subjects created, as many as can be attained naturally, in order to retain the most suitable for their designated purpose. Knowing the truth of this is an impossibility for the moment, and we must simply wait and see for this to become truly clear.

So, Why create the universe at all? God is all knowing and all powerful, etc. so why not simply create the individuals as needed? I am not certain that this was not done, as the experience of the passage of time from within a set point in the universe is arbitrary, and not absolute. God, on the ‘outside’ of time as it were, would experience it as an instantaneous happening. So, this may be the method for just such a creation.

Ah, but then we must explain the concept of Hell. Why is there a Hell then? Hell, as portrayed popularly, is largely a construct of recent times by comparison to the Christian and before it the Hebrew faith. A concept, a vision of what it may be to not be among those selected to move onward in the manner laid forth for them. This is not to say that those who are not accepted are tossed into a lake of fire. That is one of the many interpretations of the consequence. Others include the concept of absence from God, and still others simply death, or non-existence. I ascribe to non-existence. I find this to be the most logical choice given the previous logic. As the process of creation finishes, those acceptable continue to exist, and those who are not cease to be.

This is consistent with my theory of existence as an instantaneous process in the perception of God. After a roundabout manner, we arrive at the conclusion that a group of beings are created for a specific purpose instantaneously.

This is my truncated explanation, and I am willing to clarify any points you find lacking, but, as I said, this is my personal theory based on my view of the Bible, not necessarily The Truth.

Where in the world did you get that?

Yahweh sometimes levelled immediate and fatal punishment against those who rejected Him. Sometimes, he didn’t. This isn’t an inconsistency, as the punishment (or lack thereof) depends on the degree of their rebellion and the nature of their evilness.

Your comment is like saying that all thieves should be thrown in jail, since they’re all thieves. Such simplistic reasoning may sound good to the untutored mind, but people knowledgeable in the law know better. They know that the degree of punishment (if any) depends on the individual circumstances, and that punishment is not a “one size fits all” kinda deal.

Actually, Apos, I missed the post where you laid out your original question of defining free will. I wasn’t responding to that at any point. Sorry for the confusion, and the additional smarmyness on my part.

I can’t define the exactness of free will, because it’s nature is debated as well, so many people will have different opinions of what free will is.

My own, as stated above, is simply the ability to select from all available options, not a subset of them(Such as only Right or only Wrong.)

I sincerely apologize for the misconception.

The idea of original sin is also job security for preachers.

That’s my problem: to use free will as an explanation of why an omnipotent God made man morally imperfect to begin with, you MUST be able to define exactly what free will is and how various things would imapct it negatively or positively in playing out its role.

This is the trivial form (being externally able to), not the form that is relevant to the question of whether someone is the sort of being THAT chooses right. SOMETHING has to explain why people make the choices that they do: some particular will (as opposed to any random will, unconnected to an actor). If not, then the very concept of responsibility would break down, because there would be no way to assign a choice TO anything, let alone any person. You can it either way, but not both at once: either responsibility or choices disconnected from natures or identities.

At some point, the buck stops, and you can’t just keep saying “but I can choose to choose to choose to choose differently.” Because what were are concerned with is that elusive “I” and HOW it chooses any given thing: what is it, and how does it make choices “freely”… and from what?

It isn’t a matter of simply saying that there is a debate about those issues. Unless a definitive case for free will can be made: even a completely hypothetical one, the concept simply cannot have any meaning, and thus cannot be used to “explain” the imperfection of man.

That’s quite a cop-out, since you can always refer to unseen criteria for “true” evilness.

There have been plenty of utterly decrepit and blasphemous societies that God didn’t wipe out, and plenty of people that, from all accounts, were simply members of a society god didn’t otherwise like or got in his way (hey, there’s a first born Egpytian baby, holy host: MURDER IT FOR ME!!!) That’s not judicious punishment fits the crime: that’s almost indescriminately and moody vengefulness. Even the Bible paints it as God just getting pissed off sometimes, not applying any sort of consistent criteria.

Nonsense. You’re the one who’s claiming that Yahweh acted with complete inconsistency in determining who to smite, and who to spare. To make that determination, you must be the one to present complete information regarding these people, and the criteria by which they were judged. You must be the one to demonstrate that their characters and circumstances were indeed equivalent, if you are to accuse Yahweh of behaving inconsistently.

It’s not a cop-out to acknowledge that there may have been unseen criteria at work. It’s simple reality. We don’t know the complete story, and we certainly don’t know what was going on in the hearts of the people that Yahweh chose to smite. The true cop-out is pretending that we do have that information, and tjerebu accusing Yahweh of acting inconsistently.

Since we don’t have the information, it’s also utterly inappropriate to claim that Yahweh is acting consistently, since we have no basis by which to judge.

With the information we have, Yahweh appears grossly inconsistent. Deal with it.

Ah, but YHWH is only seen as acting inconsistently if you accept with total naivete the inconsistent reportage of his actions and views as all being literal accounts of what He said and did at various times. Fred Phelps and I ascribe somewhat different character to Him today – are we equally valid witnesses of wh He is?

To give one example among many, the Law (the Torah) is held to have been handed down by Him – according to Orthodox Jews and some fundamentalist Christians by direct dictation. But God is seen as the source of all law, and Moses as the man through whom YHWH pronounced the law, the Lawgiver. Most modern theories hold that as the Jewish Law was codified, it was written back into the schema of the law as pronounced by YHWH to Moses during the Exodus, so that the rules on the division of the farm of a sonless man, necessary when Israel inhabited the Holy Land, would be “officially” declared by Moses to the Israelites while they were still nomads in the northern Sinai. (Compare this with the fact that the U.S. Constitution contains an amendment, XXIV, prohibiting poll taxes, adopted during my late teen years. But we know that the U.S. Constitution was written by a Convention in 1787ff, largely by James Madison. Without the historical datum on adoption, it would be easy to conclude, working only from the facts contained in this parenthetical excursus, that James Madison probably wrote the prohibition on poll taxes.)

Using the criteria advanced by the YHWH-is-inconsistent school of thought, it would be quite simple to “prove” that King Arthur was totally incompetent – since his character as given in Gildas or in Nennius is quite at odds with that given in Chretien de Troyes, who in turn differs from Mallory, who likewise depicts him quite differently than do Mary Stewart to T.H. White. Since all these accounts, however, are to be taken credulously and given equal weight, it is therefore obvious that he was indecisive, inconsistent, and had not the slightest clue what he was doing. (The analogy is singularly apposite in that there was by best evidence a historical Artorius in the days the Roman Empire was dissolving and the Saxons were beginning their penetration of Britain, but what little we can know about the historical Artorius is so overlain by the legend of King Arthur as to be nearly indistinguishable.)

No offence but the obvious answer is yes. I may like your spin on the bible better but I honestly don’t think you have any greater insight into a possible god than I do or Phelps.
Keep on truckin’ though. :slight_smile:

Guilty until proven innocent then. Okay. Got it.

Both “guilty” and “innocent” imply final conclusions. This is incorrect. We can only proceed on the information we have available to us, and in this case that information requires us to form a tenative conclusion of inconsistency.

Try again, JThunder.

Polycarp: the accounts of King Arthur are mutually exclusive. Biblical accounts of the acts of God are generally not; in cases where there are mutually exclusive accounts (such as places in Genesis, etc.), God’s actions within those sections tend to be consistent.

In places where the accounts are not mutually exclusive, God’s actions are reportedly highly inconsistent.

By mentioning the debate, I’m simply pointing out that my ideas about free will are not necessarily the ideas, lest someone else step in with another idea. It’s important to make that distinction when discussing a religion. This is not necessarily a commonly held Christian doctrine or the established Dogma of a church.

You’re proceeding from the viewpoint that man is imperfect to begin with in the sense that man is flawed because they can choose wrong. I don’t see it that way.

As to why the individual actor makes choices and the drive to choose, it is the responsibility of the actor to choose what they feel is best. The will, in this case, is the will of the actor, being capable of choosing from any of the available parameters, yet choosing those which they, as an individual, have determined to be the best choices.

The fact that God commanded it is precisely what makes God’s killing off of the Canaanites for that very practice so hypocritical. There are other ways to test someone’s faith. If God finds child sacrifice to be such an abomination, why would He command Abraham to do so, just to see if he would? Never mind the fact that God should already know the answer…

And your last sentence merely emphasizes my point: He killed them off because they weren’t sacrificing according to His wishes. In other words, they chose not to follow Him, and He destroyed them as a result.

I didn’t claim that God must honor all (or any) child sacrifices. I claim that God was being hypocritical for asking Abraham to do exactly what he destroyed the Canaanites for doing. In Abraham’s case, even though he was more than willing to go forth with the sacrifice, God sees him as properly obedient. And it would be more like me saying, “All killing is wrong. But, just to show me that you love me, go kill that child over there.” Were God consistent, He ought to have smote Abraham for even considering following through with the command. Because, as we are also told, sinning with our hearts is the same as sinning through action, is it not?

If God is going to impart “free will” amongst His creations, then He ought to know well enough that not everyone is going to want to play by His rules. And again, if He indeed has no need of us or our worship, then there is no reason for Him to object when folks do decide they’d rather do otherwise.

Splitting hairs. If Noah’s family were not righteous (i.e., they did not follow God’s will), do you believe God would have likewise spared them, simply because Noah was?

And “unspeakably corrupt”, of course, means they were all sinners, simply because they chose not to follow God. If all of civilization had, in fact, descended into an anarchical orgy of deprivation and murder, they would have self-destructed all on their own without God’s help. So I’m not going to buy any explanation that all of humanity (save only Righteous Noah and his allegedly less-than-righteous brood) had become eeee-vil and had to be destroyed.

The point is that God punishes those who, through exercise of free will, and who, as a direct result of their non-divinity, are imperfect, choose to act not in accordance with God’s will 100% of the time. “Sin” is simply another word for humans acting like humans - the way God made us (if one ascribes to such a belief).

This just goes around in circles. Why does the actor choose what they do? And why are they that way? Why does the determination come down on one side and not the other. To even TRY to explain this why is to defeat pretty much ANY account of free will.

When the only information we have is that God had children slaughtered so that he could show off, I’d say that the burden is on God to demonstrate that this was truly a worthy reason. I’d say the same about the acts of any mass murderer.

I guess Saddam Hussien might have had great and justified reasons for what he did: innocent until proven guilty, right?