Hey
I have two incredibly interesting and thought-provoking biology questions for anyone who can answer them.
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Say non-disjunction occurs in a spermatogonium, leading to a spermatozoon with 24 chromosomes: 22 autosomes and 2 sex chromosomes, X and Y (XY). Now, say that non-disjunction also occurs in an oogonium, leading to an egg cell with 22 autosomes and no sex chromosome. Now, the problem is this: Should fertilization occur between these two cells (yes, I do realize how rare this occurrence is, but humor me), what would the outcome be? Theoretically, we should have a normal child (46 chromosomes: 44 autosomes, 2 sex chromosomes, X and Y, both being paternal.) But would it work in reality? Does the body “know” that something is wrong, even though we do have homologous chromosomes (XY)? Is this a rare case of Klinefelter’s Syndrome? Explain, please!
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This question regards the genes themselves. Now, you may or may not know of the existence of introns, exons, and non-coding genes. The former and the latter serve no apparent purpose; they are merely garbled information, sequences of nitrogenous bases and nucleotides that make no sense. They don’t code for anything. NOTHING. There are no phenotypes corresponding to them. But they must be there for a reason. What is it? Why does our DNA contain segments that are not translated? Why is it that the mRNA that is utilized in the cytoplasm only contains codons corresponding to the information found on the exons? What do the introns and the non-coding genes (which, I hear are found between every single “coding” gene) do? Were they crucial for the survival of our unicellular ancestors? Are they there to stop the body from being “confused”? Please share your thoughts (I say thoughts because I hear there is no explanation to this as of yet)
Thank you in advance for your assistance,
ghady