I am my own Cassandra.:rolleyes: Seriously though, for a well-known liar, Lomborg has done something very odd. On his web site he has placed easy to follow links for not only his supporters, but also his detractors. He may be a liar, but at least he’s an honest liar. No matter, no need to really comment on such an ad hominem. Lomborg’s book is one of the best referenced I’ve ever encountered, with plenty of web pages for ease, so any third parties can check the figures themselves.
Again, not too much need for comment. Let me merely note first that the act of putting a debate into clear theoretical light is hardly accusatory. Second, being an anarchist is orthogonal to one’s leanings on communism & capitalism. Consider David Friedman’s interesting paper on the defense of anarchy & law. For the opposite end of the scale, consider Dennis, the Constitutional Peasant, in Monty Python’s Holy Grail. Yes, anarchosyndaclism is a thread in the tapestry of Marxist thought.
I hope god has a sense of humor.
I think your English is quite good, by the way.
Good observation. Let me more explicitly stake my primary ground with an analogy. Now this is merely an analogy for illustration, not for proof, so please, nobody bother poking holes in it.
Consider democracy. Democracy comes in many different forms. The democracy of ancient Athens would be completely foreign to us today. Likewise, even though Yuri Avnery has noted that Arafat is the only Arab chief of state who was chosen in free elections, under close international supervision, personally overseen by ex-President Jimmy Carter, few self-respecting zionists would acknowledge that the PA is a democratic institution. In spite of these variances, I’m sure that most people on this thread would agree that democracy is a Good Thing. The idea that the government should represent the will of the people through voting in free elections hardly seems like a concept that is inherently corrupt. Yet, in the U.S. at least, many problems do exist. Rich people, for example, can use their wealth to increase their influence by giving disproportionate amounts of money to campaigns. Incumbents can use the power of incumbency to get their names out and maintain their offices.
The thing is, these problems aren’t problems inherent in democracy, they are problems in the laws governing a particular state’s expression of democracy. Campaign finance laws and (the lack of) term limits are the problem; not democracy. When one sees the corruption inherent in current U.S. campaign finance laws, one does not say, “Democracy is corrupt!” One says, “Our campaign finance laws are corrupt!” It would be deceptive to blame democracy loudly, then quietly add, “Well, it’s the current expression of democracy that I have a problem with.” To blame democracy one needs to craft a general argument as to why democracy, in and of itself, is corrupt. Otherwise, leave democracy out of it.
I am defending capitalism itself, in the same way I would defend democracy itself, even though campaign finance laws, for example, are corrupt.
Now Chumpsky notes that he is “talking about the actual system that exists in the real world,” even though he clearly blames capitalism in the same way that democracy is blamed in the example above. If he has a problem with trade policy, lax anti-trust laws, and the political motives of private and public individuals, inter alia, then he should be saying so explicitly and leave capitalism out of it. If he is going to mention capitalism, then he should come up with a general argument as to why capitalism is bad. He really doesn’t seem to have done so. That’s fine if his goal is to talk “about the actual system that exists in the real world.” But if that is his goal, then he should explicitly state where his beef lies and leave capitalism itself out of the argument.
In fact he seems to be trying to eat his cake and have it, too. He goes on to say that “[he] agree[s] with 99% of communist analysis of capitalism.” If I thought he was of low character, I’d suggest that he trying to argue like a creationist. Regardless, the time has come for Chumsky to either fish or cut bait. If he wants to agree with 99% of what communists say about capitalism, then he needs to present a clear argument as to why capitalism, in general, is bad. I offered one for him, the labor theory of value. I also showed him why it was false. He must either drop capitalism as an object of protest and focus merely on the laws and institutions that are the problem, or he must provide a general argument as to why capitalism is inherently corrupt. And he must do so explicitly.
(Mr. S. & Maeglin: Labor theory of value a straw man?! I’m hurt.)
Mr. Svinlesha if you are suspicious of my characterization of the labor theory of value, you have a right to be. My characterization was simplistic and very ugly. The labor theory of value does have a long and rich history pre-dating Marx by a very long time. Marx’s version is confusing. Nevertheless, I apologize for imposing that theory on you.
You state that the capitalist skims off the difference between the market price and the production costs. I disagree with this characterization. I am having real trouble thinking of a way to discuss it in this forum.
Okay, here’s one way. Suppose I have a sum of money and that I can spend it on something for me, I can buy a shotgun and a Doberman and put the rest in a safe, or I can start a business. With my first option I’m enjoying the consumption of my money. With the second, I’m enjoying the security of my money. With the third, I get neither the enjoyment of consumption (since it goes to starting a business) nor the security (since the business probably won’t succeed for very long). I’m giving up consumption and security to start a business, and in the process providing jobs to the people I employ and goods to my customers. For what?! To say that I’m merely “skimming off the difference between the market price and the production costs” is to say that I should give all my consumption and security for no reward at all! That hardly sounds like a just and equitable system and, with all due respect, I am a little bit outraged.
Here’s another example: my mother has stock in Ford. She could just sell the stock and spend the money. She could just sell the stock and put it in an FDIC insured account. Instead she keeps it in Ford–at great risk. She’s lost alot of money recently (and my folks aren’t rich). But by taking that risk and giving up current consumption she is providing jobs and quality Ford products (if everybody sold their Ford stock the price would go to zero and Ford would be in a right mess). But by your characterization, she is just skimming off the difference between the price and the cost of production.
Here’s another way to look at it. Optimization happens on the margin–it is a calculus problem. Do you know how nature always tries to either maximize or minimize something, hence bubbles are round for example? Well, we can think of economic actors doing the same thing. Indeed, let’s assume that producers seek to maximize profits. That seems fair, no? To do that she subtracts her cost function from her revenue function to get her profit function and she takes a bunch of derivatives. These derivatives are the marignal thingies I mentioned earlier. If we look at her revenue function and take the marginal revenue for labor we get the marginal revenue for a worker. That value is the value that a worker brings to the table–and as that is the case, that is the value that she deserves to be paid. It is the difference between “the value produced by all labor” minus “the value produced by all labor minus her”. That is the value that she brings to the firm, do you see? The “value produced by all labor” minus “the value produced by all labor but her” gives the value that she produced. (Since the world is imperfect and unfair, we are assuming that everybody is equally productive.)
Okay, here’s the deal. Since price is a decreasing function of quantity, and since production generally exhibits decreasing returns to scale for a single input, the marginal product of labor is less than the average product. Let’s take the first part of that last sentence for illustration. Suppose there is a 7-foot tall person alone in a room. The average height is seven feet. Suppose a 6-foot tall person enters the room. Now the average height is 6.5 feet. Supposes a 5-foot tall person now enters. Then the average height will be 6 feet. See how since we have each person entering being shorter than the previous person, the newest person, that is the marginal person, is shorter than the average of the whole room. Well, we have a “similar” thing happening when price is a decreasing function of quantity. As we add more labor we get greater output, but since the price of the good is falling as output increases, the marginal value of the labor is less than the average value. If we took the average value of labor multiplied by the total amount of labor, we would have the total value produced. But each unit of labor only produces value equal to the marginal product of labor, which is less than the average. Thus the marginal product of labor multiplied by the total amount of labor is less than the total product. That difference seems to be the “skimming” you are speaking of.
Do you see how it isn’t “skimming” at all? Each unit of labor is being paid its maginal product, i.e. what it earns, and yet there is money left over. That is the money that the capitalist gets for a) giving up current consumption, b) taking a risk, and (for Ayn Rand) c) providing jobs and goods. Seriously, does this make sense??
Okay, if we flip the problem and consider capital instead of labor, the whole analysis fits perfectly. Just replace capital with labor, and machine with worker, and you end up with capital being paid its marginal product and money being left over. Yet the workers do not “skim” money off, do they? They, like the capital, are paid what they earn.
I’ve tried to be lucid and not obfuscate the argument. I don’t know if I have succeded.
My final, last ditch, repsonse is this: aren’t you shifting the burden of proof? After all, you say that the capitalist skims off value, but it shouldn’t be up to me to prove that she doesn’t. It should be up to you to prove that she does. But I won’t advance that postion just yet, since it seems rude. But it may come up in the future…
Let me note something about mercantilism. I guess I was wrong about the dates & whatnot. I’ve taken several course on the history of economic thought and was quite confident that mercantilism predated capitalism as I mentioned before. So I stopped by the library and got out The Evolution of Economic Thought by W. E. Kuhn. He states that “from about the thirteenth century onward, capitalist enterprise slowly began to attack the framework of feudal institutions…” pg. 394. Well I’ll be buggered. I could have sworn that I have never heard of capitalism predating the time circa Adam Smith. C’est la guerre.
Being a good debator, I hope, I have left other avenues of assault for when one fails. To wit, the work of Smith and Ricardo still represented a watershed in economic thought. The discovery and analysis of absolute and comparative advantage, for example, really changed the paradigm. Unfortunately, as the perverse popularity of Pat Buchanan can attest, it has yet to change the Zeitgeist. Indeed, speaking of early “capitalistic” enterprise, Kuhn says that “the industrial and commercial evolution was marked by monopolistic public policy and private business practice and was thus inimical to the true spirit of capitalism.” pg. 395 (Italics his, bold mine.) He has some more explanation that I don’t think is really vital right now.
Let me end by touching on the issue of the rich gaining at the expense of the poor. First off, just saying it and throwing out data points really doesn’t prove anything. That’s why my reference to Lomborg carries weight; he gives long-term data and a clear understanding of how to deal with numbers. This is a big world and we can throw out data points to the end of time and nothing will be proven. Real statistical analysis must be offered before any empirical conclusions can be (tentatively) reached. With that in mind, here is an article from The Economist and the original article that it references. Notice that the original article takes a sample of 92 countries over 40 years. This is nothing to sneeze at. Unless someone can offer a better data set…well, you know, it is good evidence, although I’m sure a few ad hominems will fly because of it.
Another approach would to be to find time series data for Gini coefficients. If you don’t know what that is, look it up. For example, this site notes that the census finds that the “increase” in the Gini coefficient, which maxed in 1991/1992, is not stastically significant, i.e. there is no evidence that it has risen. Here is some country Gini figures that I really didn’t want to take the time to look at, but somebody else can if they really want to. Here is another ad hominem prompter that shows that “there appears to be little systematic relationship between growth and changes in aggregate inequality.” Be sure to check out figure 3. Here is a data set that I haven’t analyzed, but you are welcome to. Maybe I will tomorrow. Anyway, while it is possible to lie with statistics, it is much easier to lie with a few well chosen examples, and that’s what, in my experience, a few data points are: well chosen examples.
Whew. I’m beat.