US law: the exclusionary rule

As I understand it, the exclusionary rule says that if the police do something wrong (i.e. don’t have a search warrant) then anything they find cannot be used during trial. It seems to me that this punishes the general public more that it punishes the office involved.

Let’s take a simple example: An officer opens the door to a suspect’s apartment. The officer sees a gun on a table. The gun turns out to be the one that had been used in a crime. This proves (I’m simplifying here) that the suspect committed the crime. Because the officer didn’t have a warrant, the gun cannot be used in the trial.

Here’s my question: Since the gun proves that the suspect DID commit the crime, freeing the suspect puts a criminal on the street, where additional crimes are likely to be committed against the general public. Why is it that the office is not punished for his illegal act (entering the apartment without permission), and why is it that the general public IS punished (criminal on the street)? Why isn’t the protection-from-illegal-search provision enforced by punishing the one who violated it?

Color me confused.

(Not a lawyer, but I used to watch a lot of Law and Order.)

The people doing the violating are punished – nothing the police see/find that they shouldn’t have, nor anything they find later as a result, is usable in court. This seems like it’s punishing society at large, and in your narrow example above, it is. But the whole point is to prevent “fishing expeditions” in which the cops just run through the neighborhood barging into people’s houses looking for evidence.

The exclusion of illegally-obtained evidence is to prevent the slippery slope. For every gut feeling a cop has and is right – for which the PD would probably happily pay just a fine – you’d have (dozens? hundreds? two? one is too many, IMO) of people who effectively have their homes broken into by the police. That, as they say, would be a bad thing.

Basically, in your case the cops came to the suspect’s house in one of three ways: Either they had a reason to believe the evidence was there, in which case they should have played by the rules and gotten a warrant; they were canvassing the neighborhood and violating everybody’s rights in which case they get nothing to use and should be disciplined themselves; or they were invited in, in which case anything they see laying around is open game.

The process of getting a warrant is checks and balances in action. The judiciary (whichever judge is reviewing warrant requests that day) is double-checking and exercising control over the executive (the police). It keeps everybody more or less honest.

(Stupid 5-minute rule)

Quick add: The whole getting-a-warrant thing goes out the window if they’re chasing you, either due to a warrant or because you fled the scene of a crime. Depending on jurisdiction, this can include pursuing you into private buildings, chasing you across town/county lines, and possibly into other states. But even that has its limits – they have to have good reason to believe you’re hiding in the garage, and not the azaleas.

Actually, that brings up a follow-up question: Let’s say the cops are pursuing a guy who just knocked over the 7-11. He hides in John Q. Stoner’s garage, in which ol’ John has been very successfully hiding a marijuana farm. The police bust in and find the robber amongst the foliage. Everything I “know” about the law says the cops have the right to be there, but for the robber, not John. Are they required to “not notice” that John’s green thumb is being put to non-conventional use? What if it were a meth lab instead? My hunch tells me that even though the two are morally (IMO) different, they’d fall legally under the same rules.

Because it’s not about punishing the criminal justice system or the public or the accused, it’s about protecting the civil liberties of the accused. The exclusionary rule guarantees that illegally obtaining evidence is fruitless. A fine or demotion would only ensure that violations of civil liberties are “costly” in some vague financial way. That seems to obviously be a much weaker deterrent than what we have in place now.

It’s also important to note that there are two large exceptions to the “You gotta have a warrant” rule:

  1. When the police have “probable cause” to suspect the soon-to-be-accused of having committed, or being in the process of committing, a specific crime, and the time needed to get a warrant means that there are reasonable grounds to believe that the soon-to-be-accused would make his escape, or the crime-in-process would be brought to completion, the police may act without warrant. The term “probable cause” is of course a term of art, with a specific meaning defined in case law. An example might be that the police, present at the scene for quite other purposes, hear a voice screaming “help, help!” from behind a closed door.

  2. If the alleged criminal is so foolish as to leave evidence tying him to a crime in open view of he public, the police may act on the basis of said evidence. Again, case law has refined what “open view” means to a term of art. The old joke about the woman who calls the police because her neighbors can be seen fornicating in their home, and when the police respond, she shows them that if one stands on a box in her attic looking out a window with binoculars… points out one limit. But something lying on a car seat, visible through the car indow, or something visible from the street through the picture window of a house, are legitimate examples of ‘open view.’

When you hear about incidents like this, you usually hear about the criminal that got away because an important piece of evidence was thrown out. You don’t often hear about the innocent person who was subjected to an illegal search because of a “mistake” (and not because it doesn’t happen). If police can search you because of a mistake and still use the evidence (which apparently they can), I strongly suspect that a great deal more of these “mistakes” will be made and more people, both innocent and guilty, will be subject to these searches. This is the reason for the exclusionary rule. Evidence gained in such a manner is fruit from a poison tree. The authorities will go to that tree more often now that they can keep the fruit.

It’s not at all obvious to me. Today, if a police officer does lousy paperwork and executes a search warrant on 19 main st instead of 91 main st, nothing happens to him*, the only effect is that the search is invalidated. Tell the officer that he’s on the hook for trespassing, breaking and entering, a demotion/dismissal from the force, or a $1,000 fine, I’d suspect that he would be a lot more interested in being damn sure he’s got the right house number.

*Maybe there’s some internal performance measurement that he’d get dinged on, but clearly there is no direct legal consequence.

State v. Thomas, 124 P.3d 48 (Kan. 2005)

What makes you so sure none of those things happen now? The exclusionary rule isn’t trying to punish law enforcement, it’s trying to protect the civil liberties of people accused of crimes.

Imagine you have someone in custody who you think raped a 6 year old boy. He wants to talk to a lawyer. Two options - you can deny him access to counsel and not give him any food or water for 30 hours until he confesses, then pay a $1000 fine, or you can deny him access to counsel and not give him any food or water for 30 hours until he confesses and have the confession ruled inadmissible. Which is more likely to keep law enforcement from violating his rights?

In what percentage of cases does the exclusionary rule factor? If you watch the police procedural shows you see it happen all the time, but in real life how often is evidence really excluded, and in what percentage of the cases does the district attorney obtain a conviction regardless?

Probably the inadmissibility. Of course if the punishment was going on trial for kidnapping (15yrs to life in prison, see OJ Simpson) instead of a $1000 fine, I’d bet the punishment would be more effective than evidence inadmissibility.

Save the $1000 fine for an illegal search of someone’s trunk.

I’ve argued the same point I think the OP is making.

The problem with the logic of inadmissability is that there would be no consequence in any of those cases where the police broke into someone’s house on a gut feeling - unless the gut feeling was right. If they break into your house and find nothing, there’s no evidence to be made inadmissable, so no consequence. It’s only when they break into your house and find evidence of a crime that there’s the possibility of consequences.

So if you had a really incompetent police force and they had terrible instincts, they’d break into hundreds of houses without ever finding any evidence of any crimes. There’d be no consequences from their activities so there’d be no reason to stop their activities. Or, less benignly, suppose you have a police department that targets minority homes. They regularly break into minority owned homes to “look for evidence”. They never find any so there’s never anything to be ruled inadmissable. But they don’t care - the purpose of their break-ins was to harass the homeowners not to solve any actual crimes.

Suppose instead the police department was fined a thousand dollars every time it broke into a house without the proper authorization. Now the police commissioner has a real incentive to cut down on improper searchs. He’s not going to let the incompetents follow their defective instincts or let the bigots harass minorities because he’s signing the checks.

People already have the right to sue for millions of dollars for violations of their civil rights. It’s way more effective than a fine. Neither approach actually protects the accused from having their rights abridged by the police. Why focus on trying to punish the police when the real goal is to protect individual citizens’ constitutional rights?

What if you were pretty sure a jury wouldn’t convict you of “kidnapping” the child rapist who is in jail because of you?

The purpose of all these approaches is to prevent the police from performing illegal searches. My belief is that a police officer is going to be more motivated by his boss telling him “If I have to pay one more fine out of our department’s budget I’m going to put you on traffic patrol for a year” then he would be by his boss saying “The DA’s mad because we lost that case. He says it’s your fault because the heroin was ruled inadmissable. I figure he should blame that liberal judge instead of blaming a good cop who’s just trying to take some scum off the streets. But anyway, I’m supposed to reprimanded you. Consider your wrist slapped.”

The public gets pretty mad when the police screw up badly.

I think you have a very fanciful idea of how the situation would be handled. Do you think all cops are so stupid that they’d blame the judge rather than have their own understanding of the law? It’s not some new principle being adopted in the last 20 years, it’s been this way for hundreds of years. Personally, I suspect any police would have a better understanding of the rules of evidence than your average Law and Order viewer, though they may lack the nuance of a lawyer. It’s not like police put themselves at risk every day just to get a pay check and have no concern for justice. They want to see criminals convicted too.

The idea that the top guys would be more concerned with a few bills than with their conviction rate being abysmal seems utterly absurd to me. Money is just money, but a bunch of criminals getting off due to shoddy police work gets elected officials in real trouble with their constituents.

You also left out the part where the captain says “Also, you and the city are both being sued for $8.4 million, you better call your FOP lawyer. Consider yourself wrist slapped.”

The Exclusionary Rule is deeply stupid and shitty for the reasons the OP suggests. Unfortunately, would society really accept a rule which imprisoned police officers for their illegal searches? Please note in formulating your answer the popularity of the television show “24.”

The Exclusionary Rule is perhaps the worst possible legal deterrent of illegal police conduct we have – other than just asking cops nicely not to violate the Constitution all the time. Unfortunately, those are the only two feasible options.

–Cliffy

What about my other point? What about cops who have no concern about any theoretical evidence but just enter homes illegally to harass people? They never have any evidence ruled inadmissable. Why do they get to search illegally without any consequences?

What makes you think there wouldn’t be consequences?