How did that happen?
As in “I used to go to the gym but now I’m too lazy”?
I wasn’t aware that was incorrect but then I’m a grammar school drop out. What would be the correct way of saying that?
I think **Strinka ** is asking how did the construction “I used to do X” come to mean “In the past, I habitually did X”.
My guess would be something along the lines of:
I was in the habit of doing X
=>
I was used to doing X
=>
I used to do X
In the OED I found an old usage of “used” to mean “customary.”
This leads me to speculate that the contemporary “I used to” comes from an older usage which meant “It was my custom to”.
I don’t know how “used” came to mean “customary,” or even if that “used” is really the same word as “used” in “I used a hammer today.”
-Kris
Here’s the entries at etymonline for “use” both as a noun and as a verb:
-Kris
Is that not the contemporary usage? Or am I misunderstanding?
Maybe you’re thinking of the usage “I am used to doing it this way,” but that’s not what I meant. I was saying that in the old usage, the word “used” all by itself meant the same thing as “customary,” roughly speaking.
Here’s the OED entry:
- a. Established by usage; customary. Obs.
c1450 tr. De Imitatione III. xiii. 81 The olde used custom wol wistonde, but it shal be ouercomen by a better custom. 1603 FLORIO Montaigne II. xv. 358 An auncient custome, and vsed cerimony.
I was thinking in the sense “I used to smoke, but now I don’t,” which I thought was what you were saying, but according to that OED definition, I see what you mean.
This isn’t something that developed only in English. In Spanish there’s the not-so-common verb solir which conveys the same thing as in English, and also means literally accustomed to as above. For example, “Solia ir al gymnasio, pero ya estoy muy flojo.” “I used to go to the gym…”
Using “used to” in the negative sense requires a defter, linguistic turn.
“Didn’t use to” always sounds as if it should be wrong as in: “That’s strange; he didn’t use to do that.”
I always use the phrase “in the past” giving us: “That’s strange, in the past he never did that.”
How do others handle the habitual-action-in-the-negative-conundrum?
I don’t see the conundrum. “I didn’t use to do that” sounds fine to me. And it IS correct, too.
I know it’s the standard American usage because I’ve seen frequent examples of it on this Board. It still sounds terribly wrong to me though because it mixes up two separate tenses: I did X and I used to do X. I prefer the form “I usedn’t to do that”.
“Didn’t use to” sounds non-standard to me. In a job interview, I’d think I should say “Before, I didn’t” or “In the past, I didn’t” or something along those lines.
-Kris
“Usedn’t” was a joke, right? :dubious: 
I think the “didn’t use to” usage is “standard” in the sense that everyone uses it and everyone understands what is meant when others use it and no one generally blinks an eye or even notices when the usage is employed. But I think it’s non-standard in the sense that someone who is in a situation where it is appropriate to watch his/her own phraseology with an eye toward giving an impression of literacy and eloquence will avoid the usage.
-Kris
The formation “didn’t use to” is standard and correct. What is the negative of “I went there yesterday” or “I arrived there yesterday”? It’s “I didn’t go there yesterday” or “I didn’t arrive there yesterday.” You just add “didn’t” and covert the verb from past tense to the infinitive form.
I know “didn’t use to” follows the rule you mention. But what I was saying is that I think people will think, when they are trying to be careful about their speech, that they need to avoid this usage. If I am right about that, then there is a real sense in which the usage is “non-standard.”
I’m not concerned about people’s rationale for thinking there’s something wrong with the usage, or with the question of whether their rationale bears up under inspection. I’m just commenting that (I think) most people do “feel” there’s something not-quite-right about the usage, and in appropriate contexts, they adjust their speech patterns accordingly. And I think they are perfectly fine and in many relevant ways justified to feel this way and to act so accordingly.
-Kris
And you haven’t provided any cite. I don’t agree with your perception; apparently Giles doesn’t either. I think “used to” is a bit casual anyway, but I can’t imagine any situation where I’d use “used to” but not “didn’t use to”. So I think this is just your own personal deal.
I don’t know how but here’s my ideas about form.
Could “used to” be considered as a semi-modal ? You know those modal verbs we use to add our interpretation of facts ?
Can - ability, permission, must - obligation, mustn’t - prohibition, should - advice etc.
Modals are characterized by not using an auxiliary in questions and negatives
Can you speak English ? not DO you can speak English ?
You shouldn’t smoke not You DON’T should smoke
I’ve heard people say “Used you to wear school uniform?” as well as the “I usen’t”. Maybe it falls into the same category as “need to”, some people say “You don’t need to” others “You needn’t” but using “Need you go ?” rather than “Do you need to go?” just seems melodramatic these days, language evolves.
Used to does more than just denote past time - it adds a feeling of distance or nostalgia - There used to be a great little bar …; We used to go camping together …
PS Cuncator when teaching to avoid any confusion between “used to verb” and To BE used to verbING/something I draw parallels with structures like “to be interested in verbING/something” and "to be bored of verbING/something
I used to have a rusty pair of pliers, which I often used to squeeze the nipples of my English teacher. Eventually, though, she got used to it, so I quit. I told her I felt used, to make her feel guilty. She replied, screeching, “You felt used? To hear that makes my nipples hurt!” :rolleyes:
I would prefer “never used to” to “didn’t use to”
Consider also “Did he use to go to the store often?” and “Yes, he did use to go to the store.”