I had been under the impression that ‘vacated’ judgments could arise only as a result of an appellate court’s decision. Apparently, my impression was wrong.
Specifically, in this Wiki article about about detainees at Camp Bulkeley in Guantanamo, the following statement appears:
An almost identical sentence is also found in the Wiki article on the Guantanamo Bay Naval Base:
Taken together, these statements seem to be saying that a judgment can be vacated so long as the relevant parties agree. More interestingly (at least to me), they imply that a judgment can be vacated even in the absence of the involvement, decision, and assent of a superior court.
Have I misunderstood?