A felon isn’t allowed to vote while on probation. At least in most states. Or all. Not sure but this still applies if it’s only one county in any jurisdiction.
Does that make voting a right or a privilege? Rights according to the US Constitution are “inalienable”. Meaning they can’t be taken from, or denied from, a human being. Well, American human beings, but you get my point. I hope.
Driving is a privilege. The state grants you the privilege to drive a car. If you drive drunk, speed too often, tear into a shopping mall because Sbarro was out of the special, they can suspend your license. I don’t see any rights violations there.
Owning a home is also a privilege. Apparently. If you don’t pay the local government a yearly fee for the land YOU OWN, they’ll come in and take it over and kick you out. And if you don’t own a home but just a dirt field? Well you better pay on that too. You own it, as long as you pay the government. Who really owns it? Not you.
But voting is a “right”. A right can’t be taken away. For anything. It’s a right, not a privilege.
So how can we refuse the right to vote to a person because of a criminal record? Or rather, the status of their record? A felon can vote in (most) states, but not if on probation. If you’re a felon you can vote. Just not while you’re on probation?!? Really?
Let’s go a step further. You’ve come with me this far. A felon can’t vote, but still has to pay income taxes, social security, state taxes, sales taxes, Medicare and Medicaid taxes, property taxes, gas taxes, etc. All while never getting to vote. Isn’t this taxation without representation? Isn’t this a major reason the colonists revolted and created this country?