Was Marx right?

The base answer I’d give is that if we’re using “Class Horseplay” to mean whatever we want it to mean, then of course the French Revolution is an example of it, because we can definite it as “exactly what happened during the French Revolution.” internal-delineations consistent? Are there three (or two now, I suppose) classes in a society if that is what is required for an analysis, but seventeen classes if we need to divide things that way so that we can claim a conflict is class-based? The real test is whether or not it’s got a set of objective definitions that can then be applied to other, varied conflicts. And how often the definitions and goalposts need to be changed to make it work while we try to shoehorn other situations into a pre-determined framework.

Because virtually every conflict in the history of humanity, and most likely every conflict to come, is and will be between groups that can be broken down on rough lines and/or grouped into many various categories. Group vs Group conflict is indeed a part of many upheavals, but which groups, how do you define them, how do you analyze the conflict? If, for instance, we have the nation of Hypothetica in which people of a low socioeconomic status are generally religious and people from higher socioeconomic classes are generally non-religious, and many people in society are demanding that religious law be the law of the land is that a religious conflict or a “Class Brawling”?

And so on.