But be aware, Central America and Latin America are not synonyms and don’t contain the same countries as each other. All of Central America is part of Latin America, but Mexico, for example, is not Central America – it is North America, but it is part of Latin America. And then you have all of South America, which either is all lopped into Latin America or all but Suriname, Guyana, Belize, as I mentioned above.
The OP is - as everyone is saying - flatly wrong.
As additional proof Brazil was the “Republic of the United States of Brazil” from 1889 to 1930 and everybody called the country Brazil and its inhabitants Brazilians.
Mexico is offically “Estados Unidos Mexicanos” or United Mexican States. Everybody calls it Mexico and its inhabitants Mexicans.
We are the United States of America. We can call the country the US, the USA, or America, but its inhabitants are always properly called Americans.
We’ve done this before.
Since when and why is the United States called “America”
Are we the only United States?
I see the OP is not from the US, but this isn’t a case of American chauvinism, but of how language works.
Throughout the Caribbean, people identify strongly with their island. Visiting the tiny island of Dominica, a woman glanced toward a small group, shook her head, and muttered, “Jamaicans” in disgust.
Some Spanish-speakers refer to us as Estadounidenses (Spanish for “United Statesians”). And it’s almost as clumsy in Spanish as it is in English.
“Imperialista yanqui” rolls off the tongue much more smoothly.
Americans. It is the descriptive name recognized around the world. If you said to someone that you are an American no one anywhere is going to ask you what kind, Mexican?, Canadian?, Salvadoran? They will imediately know where you are from and what you mean.
Although, I’ve also occasionally seen usages of “Central America” that included Mexico.
I’ve seen people refer to Brazilians as Hispanics.
That’s wrong too.
Oh, huh. That’s interesting.
The United Nations geoscheme for the Americas does lop it in with Central America:
Why? Doesn’t Hispania include Portugal too?
The term “Hispanic” usually refers to people, cultures, and countries related to Spain and the Spanish language. Hence, not Brazil.
Edit: and, as per Wikipedia, Brazilians don’t typically self-identify as Hispanic:
Not since conversational Latin went out of style.
It does. However, “Hispanic” now means “Spanish-speaking individuals, usually those who reside in the New World.”
Forgive the possible hijack:
What nationality does “Asian” now refer to?
Why would you think that Asian means any particular nationality?
Sorry, need to re-phrase: does “Asian” refer to any specific nationality?
Not that I’ve heard.
Is there any nation that includes “Asia” as a prominent part of its name?
See the Wikipedia article for more detail on the different approaches:
No. I am Canadian, not American.
Personally, I can see the logic behind calling “America” a single continent, and likewise “Afreurasia”. And on the other hand, I can also see the logic behind calling Africa, Asia, and Europe all separate, or perhaps even including the region south of the Himalayas a separate continent. But I can’t see the logic of calling “America” one continent, while simultaneously insisting that “Europe” and “Asia” are separate.