While there have been countries with little or no industrialization which were/are republics*, I can’t think of any country which has industrialized and retained a de facto feudal system. The end of feudalism and the beginning of industrialization came quite close together.
A few prominent historical examples: The UK parliament started gaining more power in the early part of the 18th century and industrialization started around the latter part of that same century. France became a republic a few decades before industrialization began in earnest. The Meiji restoration of the 1860s abolished the Japanese feudal system and was the start of Japan’s industrialization. Germany was unified into a republic in the latter half of the 19th century.
Overall, the period of industrialization and the political unification of local fiefs into centralized national republics were quite close in time.
Is it just a coincidence? If it’s more than that, why are they so related? What was the process of one helping the other?
Would it be possible/realistic to have a feudal industrialized country? If not, why not? If so, how would it function?
- I loosely define a republic as a natioanl entity where de facto political power is not based on nobility/birthright or religion. It can include democracies and dictatorship. It can include constitutional monarchies like the UK because of the de facto qualifier.