What contraction would you use for the phrase "I have not"?

As in, say, “I have not seen the new Harry Potter movie yet.”

Growing up in the Pacific Northwest, I always heard it shortened to “I haven’t.” These days, though, I frequently read and hear people using the construction “I’ve not,” which is just as grammatically correct but sounds foreign and pretentious to me. I’m curious as to whether this is a regional thing or a linguistic shift or… heck, I don’t know what it is.

So, I ask you, which one would you be more likely to use: “I haven’t” or “I’ve not”?

Either, or. Depends on what mood I’m in. If I thought about it long enough I’d probably be able to find a pattern, but they’re pretty much interchangeable for me.

Edit: Actually, I think I may use “I’ve not” more when clarity is an issue, it’s easy to slur “haven’t” so that the “n’t” part gets muddled and missed by the listener, but saying “not” explicitly makes it easier to get the meaning.

I haven’t. I grew up in Cincinnati, OH, if that’s important.

Southern Californian here. I don’t think I ever say “I’ve not” and it would sound odd to me if someone else said it, but in writing they convey (at least to me) slightly different meaning.

“I haven’t seen it” emphasizes the have, suggesting that you might be intending to see it.
“I’ve not seen it” emphasizes the not, suggesting that you don’t intend to see it.

I haven’t feels more natural. I’ve not seems like something that might (or not, this is just the sense I get) be common in English-speaking countries other than the US.

When I read “I’ve not,” it just makes my inner narrator acquire a posh British accent. :smiley:

“I’ve not” more often than “I haven’t”.

Then again, I’ve found myself speaking more casually of late, so I’d probably say “ant” or “ain’t”.

ETA: I’m British.

I’d say “I haven’t,” but if I’m with my friends and not trying to sound halfway educated, I’d say “I’ven’t.”

“I haven’t” usually sounds more natural to me; “I’ve not” just sounds as if the speaker might have come from some English-speaking country other than the U.S, or was taught English as a second language using sample texts and dialogs in BrE. It doesn’t sound pretentious.

I usually say, “I haven’t”. My mother’s father’s people, 'tho, they come from rural North Carolina. They all say, “I’ve not.”

Lord, I can hear Uncle Carl and Aunt Gladys now…

(Yes, the dialect choices in the first paragraph were deliberate choices. I know they’us wrong.)

I’ve not removes the emphasis from I and lowers your self importance by sharing. I haven’t leaves the speaker as important as they could possibly be.

Now that the fun is over. I haven’t

If it’s something that people in general have seen, but I’m emphasizing that I haven’t, then I’ve not seen it.

If it’s something that I’ve seen in general, but not lately, like the sneakers that you’re looking for, then I haven’t seen them.

Northern Virginia

I haven’t.

Grew up and live in Southern Florida.

I’d probably go for “I’ven’t”.

Either is correct, but “I haven’t” feels more natural to me.

“I haven’t” would be my default response.

But “I’ve not” sounds classier (more British?) to me.

Upon reading the OP title, I thought that occasionally I might say “I ain’t”. :wink:

But that’s not what you asked. I’d say “I haven’t”. “I’ve not” sounds okay to me too, but you don’t hear it much around here.

I haven’t is what I usually use, but I hear myself using I’ve not more often lately.

I’m not sure why. I think there are specific situations when I’m more likely to do so, but I can’t think what they are right now.

You know come to think of it, I probably use I’ve not more often. I sometimes use “I haven’t” if I’m distracted, but more often I’ll say something along the lines of “I’ven’t” then.

You know what really wrinkles my skin? When someone uses the contraction “I’ve” in a simple possessive statement. E.g. “I’ve a little dog” or “I’ve a nasty cold.” I would never use a contraction at all in that case, and neither should you, dammit. The word “have” is the whole point of the sentence. :frowning: