hibernicus and clairobscur.
No and No.In the first instance its a false imprisonment, which is a tort not to mention a crime, second seems to be gratituious providing of good and or services.
In the instances mentioned, it was a lawful imprisonment folllowing a conviction by a properly constituted tribunral with appropriate juridiction and a sentance awarded by a competant court.
Damages and restitution is a highly complex area, the main parctioners work on it in England and Wales, McGregor is about 3000 pages in the last edition. However some basic principals are
You can only claim for losses actually suffered due to the mishap
An illustration
Convict X earned 30,000 pounds a year after tax. Was imprisoned for three years, lost job. Turned out imprisonment was wrong.
Losses?
30,000 x 3= 90,000
But
From that figure you deduct anything which he did not lose or gain as a result of imprisonment. So lets say he got a severance package (unlikely in real life but for the sake of argument) of 10,000 a year. That means
90,000-30,000=60,000
Lets say 5,000 a year was spent on food and lodging. That would mean
60,000-15,000= 45,000
That reflects his actual loss. You can’t award him the 30,000 that I deducted above, he did not lose 30,000 due to the mishap. Nor can you award him the 15,000 in expense, he would have had to pay himself for that if the mishap had not occurred.
45,000 pounds is thus in our example the actual figure that is lost due to the mishap.
Secondly, please Gfactor, don’t rely on the Daily Mail.
Finally
**He is not actually being asked to “pay for his imprisonment”. He is being compansated for his loss to to the mishap.
**